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Robert Westmoreland is correct in saying that alleged English prodrop isn't really, since it includes the auxiliary under certain circumstances (only questions, I think). Our treatment somewhat resembles that of German, which is emphatically *not* prodrop. German has rather progressive truncation, sometimes extending to a V2 auxiliary, but never to a V2 full verb. Examples: Er geht dann nach Hause. 'He'll go home then.' ==> Geht dann nach Hause. Er will ein Haus kaufen. 'He wants to buy a house.' ==> Ein Haus kaufen. Das weiss ich schon. 'I know that already.' ==> Weiss ich schon. *Das weiss schon. The last sentence set, where the object _das_ 'that' is preposed, permits deletion of the object but *not* of the subject _ich_. The subject is deletable in the first two not because it is a subject, but because it was preverbal. So German isn't prodrop in the usual sense of the word. Alleged counterexamples invariably involve the pronoun _du_ 'you (singular)'. _Hast du_ 'have you' is phonetically one word, as are all combinations of verb (auxiliary) + subject pronoun. The clitic pronouns are quite frequently reduced to the point of vowel loss -- but only in the case of _du_, where the /d/ is silent in any event (_Hast du_ is realized as [hastu] and was formerly commonly spelled _hastu_) does vowel loss lead to obliteration of the pronoun. Otherwise at least a consonant remains. Examples: Hast du gehoert? 'have you heard?' (informal) ==> Hast gehoert? Haben Sie gehoert? 'Have you heard?' (formal) ==> Haben'S gehoert? Gehen wir! 'Let's go.' ==> Gehma. (dialectical) The special status of _du_ is hardly surprising, since the original 2.sg. ending was -s, not -st. In Early Old High German we find forms such as _habes thu_ 'have you' and, of course, _thu habes_ 'you have'. Later we find _habestu_ and _du habest_. The same reanalysis of the dental stop as part of the desinence occured in English as well, but before the historical period; the oldest English already has -st (thu haefst > thou hast), not -s. Anyway, German isn't prodrop, and English doesn't seem to be either. --Leo ConnollyMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
To add to the observation that English 'pro drop' delete the Aux as well as the pronoun (unlike pro drop in other languages) here are a couple of other observations: To those who think that English is pro-drop: can you cite any example of pro drop in English embedded clauses? If not, why not? Secondly, languages with pro drop generally *require* pro drop in bound variable contexts (e.g. bound by a quantifier). Again, this is impossible in English. How come? Alan Munn <amunnMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuegibbs.oit.unc.edu> Dept. of Linguistics, UNC Chapel Hill
Aux deletion is by no means necessary for the (pseudo-?)pro-drop of AmE: "Bought a car yesterday. Broke down already. Takin' it back in the mornin'. Darn well better give me my money back." 3 subjects, 4 subject shifts. Now, this IS clearly distinct from pro-drop as normally conceived, agreed. But it seems that rather then sweep it under the rug, we have to examine it. (Apologies--really!--if that's an unjust accusation of sweeping bothersome bits under rugs. I saw so much of it as a graduate student that I shall hallucinate it for the rest of my days, I fear.) Tom CravensMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue