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In his 4.330 response to Andy Spencer's questions regarding the apparent contradiction between the fact that k > ch is an attested (and frequent?) historical change and the fact that k > ch is unattested (or rare?) as an allophonic alternation, John Coleman observes that k and ch (or s) mark "the start- and end-points of a CHAIN of natural phonetic/phonological changes". Coleman walks us through a series of steps, which appear to be summarizable as (1) palatal assimilation of k before i or j followed by (2) strengthening of aspiration and (3) reanalysis of this highly aspirated palatalized velar as a voiceless palatal affricate (or fricative). Step 1 is an assimilation that is well attested in many allophonic alternations (in English and other languages). Step 2 is not discussed but might result from a general fortisization driven by forces external to the specific k>ch>s development. Step 3 is of course the crux of the development . Coleman observes that "The distinction between an [i]-coloured aspiration portion [of a palatalized velar plosive] and a voiceless palatal fricative [C] (IPA c-cedilla) is largely a matter of duration and air pressure. Otherwise, they are acoustically practically identical. So it is phonetically natural for an aspirated [k,] or [c] allophone of /k/ to come to be perceived and pronounced as a voiceless palatal affricate [cC]." The critical juncture, therefore, appears to be this shift of an allophone of k from being merely auditorily indistinguishable from a voiceless palatal affricate (vpa) to being articulatorily distinguishable as a vpa. And the evidence suggests that this particular shift in articulatory target, unlike others that appear in allophonic alternations, necessarily results in (or is motivated by) the emergence of a new vpa phoneme, employable in the underlying articulatory representations of lexical items in just the way the phoneme k is employed. We have now rephrased the original question, "Why no k/ch allophonic alternation?", as the question "Why are Velar and Palatal incompatible allophonic articulatory targets, even though they are occasionally associated with identical (and attested) allophonic auditory cues?" What we need to do now, I suppose, is look for other examples of auditorily similar allophones to see how they differ in their susceptibility or resistance to merely allophonic articulatory redefinition. Study of the differences between auditory and articulatory phonology may, BTW, eventually result in raising a more fundamental question for phonological theory: "Do the auditory representations of lexical items differ in content from their articulatory representations?" For example, are the underlying articulatory representations of _tab_ and _bat_ identical except for the order in which articulatory targets appear, while their auditory representations differ in numerous ways because of differences in voice onset timing, vowel duration, formant transition slopes, and other such acoustic cues for their recognition? In other words, syllable-initial and syllable-final occurrences of consonants may have unitary articulatory representations but be represented as separate auditory units. Confirmation that these two kinds of representation must for other reasons be treated separately could help explain an otherwise inadequately explained fact: Conduction aphasics retain their ability to understand what is said to them but cannot reproduce it. In a bifurcated phonological theory we could claim that such aphasics have lost the connections between auditory and articulatory representations that would have been provided by their damaged arcuate fasciculus (the band of nerve fibers that links secondary auditory cortex [Wernicke's area] to secondary motor cortex [Broca's area].) Query: Do conduction aphasics also exhibit the difficulties in articulatory compensation that would be predicted by a loss of auditory representations available for monitoring as a result of articulatory-to-auditory (Broca's-to-Wernicke's) connections? (I'm not a neurolinguist even if I do sometimes try to sound like one.) Whew, four screensful! Sorry. Thanks for your patience. H. Stephen Straight Anthropology and Linguistics, Binghamton University (SUNY) E-mail: <sstraighMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuebingvaxa.bitnet> <sstraigh
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John Coleman says in reply to Andy Spencer's queries: >> since each step along the way is a phonologically >> natural assimilation, phonological theory cannot help but >> characterize K > CH as a natural assimilation. This strikes as a bizarre conclusion. Phonological theory should in fact say that K > CH is NOT a natural synchronic assimilation, while the single steps (e.g. K > K') are. Otherwise, almost EVERY chain of sound changes will have to be treated as a natural synchronic process.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue