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Alexis_Manaster_RamerMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueMTS.cc.Wayne.edu writes: > > In response to my suggestion that the following is a true universal: > > While there are languages in which plural is CONSISTENTLY > more marked formally than singular, there are NO languages > where the converse is the case. > > I have received no counterexamples. > I do not deny that this does, in fact, seem to be a universal. Even in those languages where the plural is less marked for a certain (arbitrary or specific) subclass of nouns (see my summary of a few weeks back), there are classes of nouns where the converse holds true (i.e., where the singular is less marked) or where neither is unmarked (logical "or" = v here). But I question the utility of such a universal. Does it reflect a semantic reality which should be reflected in the analysis, or does it merely reflect a cognitive tendency? In other words, need a semanticist or a morphologist worry about such a universal (especially due to its vague reference to consistency), or should the concern be solely that of the socio- and antropological linguist? (This question, granted, treads on philosophical thin ice, since it might and has been argued that there is no semantic reality outside of cognition. Be that as it may, however.) -- Paul Kershaw Michigan State University KERSHAWP
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Dan Slobin offers useful criteria for those concerned with an adequate definition of the unfortunately named `pro-drop' phenomena, i.e. discourse function. He rightly observes that `much more is involved...than simply setting the ``pro-drop parameter'', which after all is but a structuralist formalism distinguishing languages with person/number-agreement inflection from those without, and, in itself, offers no explanation for why the setting should be one way or another. His point that Spanish might better be treated as a `PRO-ADD' language is well taken, since it is not, in fact, the case that the subject is unexpressed in unmarked presuppositionally neutral Spanish sentences, simply because no pronoun appears. On the contrary, the subject is explicitly expressed in the inflectional morpholgy on the verb, and, therefore, it makes little sense to say it is unexpressed, or to speak of its having been `dropped', unless, of course, English is held up as a standard of comparison. His observation that expressed pronouns are added and syntactically positioned in Turkish according to discourse functions such as contrast, emphasis, topic maintainence, switch reference, and the like, shows that the setting of the paramater is not simply a matter of `on' vs. `off' and suggests that these functions should be taken into consideration in the definition of `pro-drop'. It would probably be useful to proceed by taking the unmarked presuppositionally neutral sentence as the most appropriate context and proceed along the following lines: Discourse Function Syntactic Marking Language Type Pro-Drop -neutral response 0 [null pronoun] + to questions PRO [expressed pronoun] - -offering 0 + information PRO - By consideration of the marked cases, the [+ Pro-Drop] languages may be compared to determine the extent to which coding strategies such as stress, reduction, cliticization, etc. are used in lieu of, or as complements to, the syntactic, and morphological expression of the discourse functions of topic switch, emphasis, assertive contrast, and so forth. In short, cross-linguistic comparison is best based upon features that are bound to be shared by all languages, rather than upon language-specific morpho- syntactic coding strategies, which are known to vary arbitrarily from one language to another. Robert MixMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue