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Re Steven Schaufele's comments regarding Pollock 1989 and the relation between agreement and verb raising: (1) French: How much phonetic difference there is between English and French verbal inflection depends on the verb class your looking at. Moreover, a number of people have recently argued that in colloquial French, it is in fact the subject clitics that constitute *rich* agreement. A relevant reference is Roberge, Y. 1990. The Syntactic Recoverability of Null Arguments. McGill University Press, Kingston et al. (2) Mainland Scandinavian: The standard view is now that these languages do not raise the verb to AGR. See for example Vikner's 1991 U of Geneva dissertation. In my view, the arguments are overwhelming. (3) Italian: The reference your looking for is Belletti, A. 1990. Generalized Verb Movement. Rosenberg & Sellier, Torino. The work was reviewed by J.-Y. Pollock in the last issue of Language. Again, I think that it is the standard view that the European Romance languages have V to I raisng. Interestingly, Brazilian Portuguese, which lost crucial agreement morphology pieces and, unlike Puerto Rican Spanish, did not develope subject clitics as agreement substitutes, seems not to have pro-drop or verb raising to the highest inflectional head. (4) English: I haven't had the chance to look at Schaufele 1993 (Steven, would you send me a copy of it and your 1991 paper? Thanks.), but while it is clear (and, as I think, natural) that it took quite some time for V to I (or AGR) to be lost completely, it seems equally clear that the bulk of V to I raising was lost in the 16th century, immediately after much of English verb agreement was lost. See for example Roberts, I. 1992. Verbs in Diachronic Syntax. Best, Bernhard Rohrbacher Dept. of Linguistics University of Massachusetts Amherst, MA 01003 <bwrMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuetitan.ucs.umass.edu>
Steven Schaufele's very interesting contribution on typology contains the aside "which few would challenge" in relation to Pollock's GB analysis of French and English (V-raising vs AGR-lowering). Is this a rhetorical flourish, or does he really believe that linguists who disagree not only with this analysis, but with the whole of GB theory, are that few? If so, I'd love to know how many is few, and whether he's right. Or is it just that people who question the fundamentals of GB simply don't count? (I raise the question because I read similar things so often that I feel there is a general issue worth discussing.) Dick Hudson Dept of Phonetics and Linguistics, University College London, Gower Street, London WC1E 6BT (071) 387 7050 ext 3152Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue