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Paul Kershaw questions the utility of my proposed generalization to the effect that no language consistently marks singulars more than plurals, while the opposite is common. I wonder if the following statement would still be objectionable: Every language that has number OVERALL marks plurals more than singulars. If this is true, it raises the important question of what we mean by overall. That is, there has to be some notion of LOCAL exceptions to GLOBAL generalizations which do not falsify the generalization. One could propose various metrics: for instance, you could count the number of average number of phonemes per singular or per plural form in the language. But you could also give different weights to different phonemes, depending on the phonological markedness of the phonemes (which could in turn be measured by relative frequency either within the language or crosslinguistically). By the way, it seems to me that ALL universals seem to be of this form. That is, there always seem to be local exceptions to a universal no matter how well motivated it might otherwise seem.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue