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To those familiar with Scandinavian languages past and present, Steven Schaufele's use of "hann" and possessive "hanns" looks like an abrupt modern extension of the Middle English habit of adopting Scandinavian pronouns (the previously successful entrants being "they", "them", and "their"), rather than a pure neologism. It also looks as if it means "he", not "she" or "she/he". Presumably the idea behind all this will be explained in due course. Elise Morse-GagneMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Talking of pronouns, can some one fill me in on the gender-neutral HANN (possessive HANNS) which some LINGUIST afficionados have taken to using. Presumably this is of Scandinavian extraction, but is its use based on a specific language or variety? Did it originate in the Mid-West via substrate influence? Is it used by anyone other than linguists? Perhaps the LSA should adopt it in the Guidelines for non-sexist usage. Steve Matthews, U. of Hong KongMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue