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A minor note on the passing of "shall", which, if not dead, is clearly being kept alive only by heroic intervention. I noted Linda Coleman's posting especially. I'd wondered when somebody was going to mention "Shall we ..?" and "Shall I ...?". The latter, however, is - in my experience - significantly less common than the former, and I believe there's a reason. What we actually hear in normal uses of modals is an unstressed syllable, and it's usually subject to considerable phonological reduction in English (witness "can't" /kae'n/ vs. can /kE'n/ or [unstressed] /kn/). So what this is more likely to be than /shae'lwi/ or /shae'lay/ is /shMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuewi'/ or /sh
lay'/. The latter is unambiguous as a representation of "shall I", and it sounds - to my 51-year-old Midwestern US ear - as higher register than I normally like to invoke in ordinary spoken English, which is to say "odd". The former, however, I use frequently, and recognize others as using frequently. Note that /sh
wi'/ is in fact ambiguous, and *could* represent "should we" as well as "shall we". I submit that its ambiguity represents a merger of "shall" and "should" in this function, another sign of shall's impending demise. Modals don't die rapidly, however. No doubt "shall" will linger on for decades or centuries, like "dare" and "need", and get together at the Old Modals' Home for chats about the old days. The fact is that old modals never die, they just become negative polarity items. Cheers, -j
Leslie Morgan mentions that her use of 'shall' is due in part to influence from her NOrth Carolina mother. My mother was also from North Carolina (Charlotte) so perhaps my usage could come from a similar source. I grew up in East Tennessee (near Knoxville), but do not know if East Tennesseans also use shall/shan't. I suspect not, but does anyone els out there know for sure? Mike MacKenzie Indiana University, BloomingtonMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
I have noticed myself using "shall" for years, and I thought someone else would post the conditions for its use that fit my behavior, but no one has. In short, it's a marker of deference. "Shall I go get the groceries?" is something I'd naturally say to a much older person; I don't use it in a non-inverted or negated context. (To an equal, not in a deferential category, I'd say "should I go get the groceries", but that would normally be pronounced "[shay] go get the groceries.") John GoldsmithMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
As numerous LINGUIST list subscribers have affirmed, _shall_ seems neither dead nor moribund in contemporary English usage. My midwestern dialect puts me among the speakers that Linda Coleman (LINGUIST 4.751) identifies as using _shall_ to formulate interrogatives (e.g., "Shall we get started now?"). As she points out, these questions convey more than a simple request for information. In my dialect, _shall_ seems to be marked as a first person modal, and this is consistent with most of the data I have seen in this thread. There remains, of course, the possibility that this is more an artifact of undergraduate grammar and rhetoric than a shared behaviour of a somewhat heterogeneous speech community located in rural central Iowa. Interestingly, in the last couple of years I have learned that certain government documents (e.g. DoD requests for proposal and contracts) distinguish strictly and systematically between their usage of _shall_ and non-marked terms like _will_, _should_, etc. In these documents, _shall_ invariably conveys specific, scheduled contract requirements, and the other non-marked synonomous terms are not used in this way. I am not aware of a precursor to this semantic distinction. Further, this marked usage of _shall_ always occurs in the third person. Perhaps _shall_ has a future as an illocutionary act. --Gary coenMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuepgate.boeing.com