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> The recent discussion of second person plural pronoun forms in English has brought to my attention the question of whether 2nd person plural can have arbitrary reference, as do 1st and 3rd plurals. In my dialect, _you guys_ , always has specific reference. Is this true for users of _y'all_, _you'uns_, etc.? This effect can be seen with unmarked _you_ and a singular or plural reflexive: (1) a. If you want something done right, you have to do it yourself. b. If you want something done right, you have to do it yourselves. (1a) can be either arbitrary/generic/nonspecific or referential/specific, whereas (1b) must be addressed to a set of specific people (and would sound better if _something_ were replaced with a specific thing). So my query is the following: for native speakers of plural _you_ forms, are these forms allowed with arbitrary reference in sentences like (1) and (2)? (2) You have to drive everywhere in L.A. I expect that something like (3) will be ok, but is not arbitrary, referring to one or more adressees and including other (unspecified) people in the group to which they belong, as has been attested for _y'all_. (3) You (guys) have to drive everywhere in L.A. Please respond to me directly, and I will post a summary. I also welcome any comments on arbitrary/impersonal/generic pronouns and plurality in general. (And yes, this is related to my 'singular they' query a while ago, but now I'm also considering impersonal uses with no antecedent.) Rachel Lagunoff ihw1009Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuemvs.oac.ucla.edu ihw1009
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Hi Neters, I am preparing a course on TRANSPARANCY: linguiatic transparancy, morphological transparancy, semantic transparancy. transparant vs. opaque. I was quite disappointed by the small number of references on these topics (Ullman's Semantics; Natural Morphology material). Do any out there happen to know of more varied publications? Please send ideas directly to me: RHLH702Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueHAIFAUVM. I shall send a summary to the group. Many thanks, Michal. Acknowledge-To: <RHLH702
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Has anyone studied the tendency of many speakers to use only one case for conjoined pronouns? We are all familiar with the accusative version: Me and Bob went bowling yesterday which is generally corrected, producing no only: Bob and I went bowling yesterday but also the equally illogical: This beer belongs to Bob and I Where the rules that ordinarily govern the use of "me" and "I" appear to be suspended. I have long presumed that to be in idiosyncratic hypercorrection which affected only the first person, until one of my roommates produced a similar utterance in the third person: They came to see she and Bob I worked for he and John Is this simply an anomalous idiolect, or has this tendency been observed and studied before? Jeff Bishop Northwestern University jbishopMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuenwu.edu
Dear Linguists, I am looking for details of current auditory models for use in Speech Recognition. Any information gratefully received, be it in the form of a specification, program code, or just directions to relevant literature as to the best place to start. I'm happy to post a summary if there's sufficient interest. Thanks in advance, Geoff Williams, Linguistics Dept School of Oriental & African Studies, LondonMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue