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Larry Horn <LHORNMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueYALEVM.YCC.YALE.EDU> states: > On infixation and "infixation": it is emphatically NOT the case that an > affix automatically becomes an infix 'once it [finds] itself between the > stem and a new affix'. I certainly agree with this on principle, but with the emphasis on `automatically'. For example, there are a great many stems in a typical Mississippi Valley Siouan language that have the form X__Y, where __ marks the location in which the pronouns are inserted (all of them - I'm not talking about the variable pattern that occurs with locative prefixes). This is certainly not infixation per se, for two reasons: first, that the pronominals occur initially (or variably) in even more stems than they occur medially; and, second, that X in many cases is transparently an incorporated noun, or a productive instrumental prefix of the `outer instrumental' type, etc. And, in some cases Y is pretty clear even if X isn't. There are, however, some stems in which the nature of X and Y is unknown, or only known by means of historical/comparative analysis, so that XY is effectively a single stem with the oddity that it pronominalized after the X__Y pattern. I'm still reluctant to call the pronouns infixed - I'd rather call X a preverb - but this is plainly getting to be a matter of taste. I believe that the matter goes even further in Caddoan languages, where there are many stems with a discontinuous X__Y form (not sure what goes in the middle) in which X and Y are not morphemes on any semantic basis, but only due to this separability. Furthermore, I gather that the exact boundary between X and Y can vary between languages, where there are cognates. I hope any Caddoanists listening will feel free to correct this, if I have got it wrong. In addition, david joseph kathman" <djk1
midway.uchicago.edu> says: > Also, I would say "unbe-fucking-lievable" rather than > "un-fucking-believable"; my intuition is that the infix must come > immediately before the stressed syllable. This is consistent with > "fan-fucking-tastic" and the other examples given, but not with > "un-fucking-believable". Unfortunately, it is definitely un-fucking-believable as far as my judgement runs (and I recall hearing this form, too, but never *unbe-fucking- lievable). Of course, un is stressed, as in McCawley heavy-light insertion context, so maybe we have to assume underlying u'nbelievable, rather than unbelie'vable, but I suspect that the real problem is that un has a rather strong (separating transparent constituents) boundary after it. John Koontz
>[various inventions].. >seem to lead to the notion of infixation as an active creative >process on both sides of the Atlantic. (Peter Salus, Linguist 4.887) And of the Pacific, as in kanga-bloody-roo. Avery.AndrewsMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueanu.edu.au
My idolect would allow "un-fucking-believable" or "a whole nother" but never "fan-fucking-tastic" any of the other constructions where the infixes split morphemes. Further, I am convinced that the first two examples occur in "genuine" speech, while the expressions with split morphemes appear to by stylistic in nature. Further, I find it "unbefuckinglievable" that anyone actually says that. Jeff Bishop jbishopMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuenwu.edu
I am very impressed -- should I say "im-fuckin-pressed"? -- by David Stampe's analysis of infixation, phrases, and stress in vol 4.888. But George Gale's reference to "Jesus H. Christ" in vol 4.887 is beside the point, at least as far as concerns its origin. "Jesus" is a transcription in Latin of the name "Yeshua" [or something like that; my Hebrew isn't strong and my Aramaic is nonexistent], maybe carried via Greek. In Greek it's spelled iota eta sigma omicron upsilon sigma which in capitals, using the common curved sigma variant, looks like IHCOYC -- the "Y" is approximate, the rest is accurate. This, or the first three letters, is commonly seen in medieval and Renaissance religious art. There is also a tradition of "I.H.S." interpreted as "Jesus hominum salvator" 'Jesus, savior of people' and in other expansions as well -- remember that "J" as a distinct letter from "I" is only a few centuries old. This "IHC" is the likeliest origin of the H. in "Jesus H. Christ". What is relevant in Gale's observation is the survival of the expression long after the times when most speakers were familiar with this trigraph (or is it still current?). The rhythm and the apparent insertion into a familiar name certainly fit the general pattern that Stampe points out. Mark A. Mandel Dragon Systems, Inc. : speech recognition : +1 617 965-5200 320 Nevada St. : Newton, Mass. 02160, USA : markMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuedragonsys.com P.S. This document was dictated with DragonDictate v2.0.