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I am forwarding the following message as a query to the LINGUIST and SEALANG-L (SE Asian Languages) lists. Tony Kroch recently presented some of his work on how languages change head-directionality and the like. One of the data was the constituent _ki_, a borrowing from Per- sian to Hindi, which, unlike other complementizers (clause-introducing elements) in modern Hindi, appears at the initial edge of the clause it introduces. During the course of Tony's talk (presented at the Jersey Syntax Circle's September meeting at Princeton), other such borrowings were raised. Leonard Babby (Princeton), mentioned that the same element _ki_ from Persian has been borrowed into Turkish, and is unique as well with regard to directionality. I mentioned the following possible datum from Tagalog which I now ask you fellow linguists to enlighten us on. First, however, a note on how to get Tony's paper (taken from the handout to his talk, entitled "Morphosyntactic Variation"): "This paper is available by anonymous ftp from the Linguistics Department server at the University of Pennsylvania: babel.ling.upenn.edu. Anyone who would like a hard copy of the paper can request one from me [Anthony Kroch] at krochMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuechange.ling.upenn.edu." The details of the Tagalog message follow, as well as specific questions at the very end of this transmission: ---------------------------Original message---------------------------- Tony, I spoke to you briefly following your recent talk at the Jersey Syntax Circle. I mentioned that Tagalog had two different constituent orders dependent on what may be a borrowing from Spanish. Usually the clause order is the verb, with all sorts of morphology, followed by all the arguments with no SYNTACTIC order required (but some prosodic restrictions, i.e., clitic pronouns have to precede full- word arguments, etc.). An example: 1> Uminom ang bata ng tubig. drank TR kid PT water 'The kid drank (some) water.' ("TR" is for "trigger", something like a topic. There is verbal morphology in agreement with the trigger. "PT" is for "patient". These are the terms used by Paul Schachter in his more recent papers on Tagalog, for example, his chapter "Tagalog" in _The World's Major Languages_ (Bernard Comrie, editor), circa 1987.) Either order of the two nominals is allowed in <1>. I've seen up to four nominals--not all of them arguments--follow a verb in any order. There is the other order, which has a very "Manila-ish" flavor, such as the following: 2> Ang bata ay uminom ng tubig. There is only one order allowed in this example. If there were more than two nominals, then the remaining post-verbal nominals could have any order. (I want to keep this simple.) I suspect (but don't know this for sure), that Tagalog _ay_ (orthographically; phonetically it begins with a glottal stop) is a borrowing of the Spanish _hay_ (where the _h_ is a glottal stop) as in _No hay agua._ `there is no water.' I don't fully understand the use of Spanish _hay_, since I don't know that language, but I understand that it is some sort of existential. In case you, or anyone you consult, do(es) know that language, I can report that Spanish loan words in Tagalog are mainly from the Andalucian dialect of Spanish. The reason I mentioned this to you is that _ay_ may be something like _ki_ in Persian, spread to Turkish, etc. I believe Bob Frank also made a comment about some markedness restriction on the direction that left/right- headedness can take. I believe he said, quoting Kayne perhaps, that right- headed languages can borrow/acquire left-headed lexemes, but not the other way around. I don't know exactly what to make of the data above. I can speculate a little, however: Let's assume that pre-_ay_ Tagalog had a simple VP clause in which the trigger can, in certain cases be preposed (unlike the other nominals--not shown here), which is presumably akin to topicalization universally. Let us also assume that these nominals got Case through the prefixal elements like _ang_ and _ng_ above, i.e., denecessitizing "movement to get Case". Along comes Spanish _ay_, possibly I or C in category. It also requres a specifier for whatever reason. (Incidentally, _ay_ can contract as ff: 3> Ang bata'y uminom ng tubig. (same gloss as <1> or <2>) This suggests that _ay_ (or its contracted form _'y_, phonetically [y]) may have a Wackernagelian restriction along with a pre-verbal ordering requirement that in effect "conspire" to force one nominal to precede _ay_. *************************************************************************** QUESTIONS FOR LINGUIST AND SEALANG-L READERS: 1. Can any of you confirm any of the speculation on my part in the above message, especially that Tagalog _ay_ comes from Spanish _hay_. If so, kindly forward your comments to me and the citations of any sources on this or your own personal observations. I would also like to get in touch with anyone who knows a good deal about the language contacts that took place between the two languages from the mid 1500s to the early this century (when contacts ended abruptly following the Spanish-American War). 2. Any other such phenomena would also be of interest to Tony, of course, especially counterexamples to the claim raised above (by Robert Frank, U. of Delaware), that only right-headed languages (usually non-Indo-European) can acquire left-headed lexemes (usually from Indo-European languages). Tony did mention that this may epiphenomenal evidence, since the facts of recent world history are such that Indo-European languages are the ones (we know about) that, for whatever reason, had sway over other languages. 3. Kindly forward this query to any other list that may be able to shed light on the general issue. Most of you probably know of collegues at your respective institutions who are not on line but might know answers; kindly print them out a copy of this query as well. Kindly address responses to me at any of the following addresses and I will post a joint (LINGUIST and SEALANG-L) summary. Best, --Loren Billings Internet: billings
princeton.edu Bitnet: billings
pucc POBox 891, New Brunswick, New Jersey 08903-0891 USA
I have been scouring the literature on unaccusative (as generative grammarians like to call them following Perlmutter I guess) alias active (as Klimov, Lehmann, and many others call them) constructions, that is, ones where different classes of intransitive verbs have different syntax. However, I am having trouble finding examples of so-called deep syntactic processes that are sensitive to such distinctions (except for ones which are apparently universal, like the resultative facts recently discussed by Bresnan and others). So are there syntactic processes (other than agreement and case) which distinguish the different kinds of "subjects" of intransitive verbs in languages with unaccusative (=active) patterns? Please respond to me and I will post a summary.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
I have been wondering about the evolution of inflected and positional languages. How and why did English evolve from a mainly inflected language into a mainly positional one? The same question applies to most of the Romance languages as well. Are there any living or dead Sino-Tibetan languages that are inflected? Has a positional language ever involved into an inflected language? I'm sorry if the topic seems basic or the terms are not used properly. I am only beginning my study of linguistics. Any responses and/or references would be most appreciated. Chris Johnson cjohnsonMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuebronze.coil.com
There is talk again on the Linguist list about the "great Eskimo snow hoax". I may be imagining things, but the people who talk about this never seem to be specialists in Eskimo languages. I would like to hear from an Inuit or Tlingit specialist on just what the snow situation really is in these languages. Frankly, I find it rather hard to believe. Rural southern Chinese dialects have lots of words for different kinds of rice, different parts of the rice plant, crops at different times of year, and so on. I have heard them myself, written them down with my own pen. Mongolian languages have lots of words for horses and goats of different ages and colors and types. There was an article on this not long ago in _Mintzwu Yeuwen_, a Chinese periodical. French has so many different words for the processes involved in cooking that English-speaking chefs have to borrow them wholesale, despairing of translation; you can easily verify this by looking in Larousse or asking a trained chef. Coastal Miin dialects have more words for crab that you could ever believe unless you have visited one of the port restaurants in Ilan or Fwujiann. How about the endless vocabulary for boats and their myriad parts in English (also in Hokkien, spoken by another seagoing people). So why shouldn't Inuit have a dozen or more words for different kinds of cold precipitation? I would like to hear from a specialist and settle this thing - one way or the other - once and for all. David Prager Branner, Yuen Ren Society Asian L&L, DO-21, University of Washington Seattle, WA 98195 <charmiiMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueu.washington.edu>