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Last week I asked for references to discussions of a problem that comes up in linguistic typology: When there are conflicting or ambiguous criteria for deciding whether a particular language is a particular 'type' with respect to some feature (word order, clause alignment, or whatever), how does one decide how to assign that language? I would like to thank the following for their helpful replies: George Huttar, Yehuda Falk, Dan Everett, Larry Trask, Jon Aske, Mike Maxwell, Mark Newson, Bill Croft, Georgia Green, Ingo Plag, Randy Harris, and Andrew Carstairs-McCarthy. I was quite surprised at the small amount of published attention that there is to this problem. I was pointed to short discussions (no more than a couple pages) in some of the major works devoted to typology: the seminal Greenberg paper, Comrie's 'Language Universals and Linguistic Typology', Croft's 'Typology and Universals', and Hawkins' 'Word Order Universals'. It was also suggested that I look at Doris Payne's 'The Pragmatics of Word Order' and to papers on Yagua by Payne and Dan Everett and on Tzotzil by Judith Aissen. What prompted my query was a reading of Johanna Nichols' Linguistic Diversity in Space and Time, which I found extremely impressive. But all through it I had an uneasy feeling caused by her pigeon-holeing languages as 'SVO', 'head-marking', 'active-stative', or whatever. Since so many languages are *not* transparently one particular 'type' on the surface, I wondered what the basis for these type-characterizations was. There is no general answer given to this question for an obvious reason: neither Nichols or anyone else could have profound first-hand knowledge of more than a small handful of the 174 languages in the data base. I suspect that in most cases Nichols could not know what criteria were applied to type a language in the sources she consulted, because many sources are insufficiently explicit on that point or take as self-evident some categorization that another would take as controversial or simply wrong. (Consider, for example, her typing French as VSO.) There were, to be sure, cases where Nichols threw out some language from the sample of some particular feature because of its obvious ambiguous status with respect to that feature. But doing so could have created more problems than it solved. As both Aske and Croft pointed out in their postings to me, if a language is 'inconsistent' with respect to a particular feature, that too is typological data; data moreover that could be highly relevant to conclusions about stability and diversity over time. In a sample of 174 languages, misassignment of several languages within a category with a 3-way division could lead to rather different conclusions. Likewise, so would postulating a different set of categories or having categories specifically for 'mixed' types. This is beginning to sound like a critique of Nichols, but I don't mean it to be. Rather, it is more a commentary on the shaky art of typological pigeon-holeing that underlies not just conclusions about language prehistory, but also much functionalist theorizing and -- increasingly -- generative theorizing as well. There is also the question of sample *size*. Typologists strive, quite reasonably, to correct for genetic and areal biases in their samples (the most heroic effort along these lines that I know of is Dryer's work). But how confident can we be of any attempt to eliminate bias from the sample, given Nichols' conclusions that influences can extend half-way around the globe? And doesn't that present a challenge to purported explanations of the relative frequency of some typological feature, which are common in the functionalist literature and increasingly so in the generative? So much could be the result of historical accident on the one hand and contact and descent on the other, rather than the product of 'external' functional forces or the design of UG. The smaller the sample of languages where mutual influence or common descent is not a possibility, the more likely that some implicational typological relation is artifactual. And the more reason we have to think that there are a lot of typologically possible but -- purely by chance -- nonexisting languages. Fritz Newmeyer fjnMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueu.washington.edu PS: With respect to the last point, Alan Bell has shown that if some feature appears in 1% of the world's languages (say, 40-50 languages), it will show up only about 50% of the time in a random sample of 75 languages. You'd need a sample of over 200 languages before it could be counted on to show up 90% of the time. And we are assuming here, utterly counterfactually, that there are no genetic relations or areal influences between languages.