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I was wondering whether anyone had references for the differences between Canadian and American accents. I know there are, but I got stuck the other day when someone asked me to give him specific examples of such differences. Thanks a lot in advance for your help.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Could someone suggest phonetic symbol (e.g. IPA) software that is DOS-compatible and can be run with WordPerfect? Thanks in advance for your responses. Clancy Clements Indiana University ClementsMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueindiana.edu
Dear List members, I am in the course of collecting and analysing my data for my Ph.D thesis, which is a genre analysis of introductory applied Linguistics textbooks (mainly textbook chapters on Lingusitics and Language Teaching Methodology). These books should meet the following prerequisites in order to be included in my corpus: 1. They should be written mainly to be used as textbooks for undergraduate courses 2. They should be published between 1980-1994. 3. They should have distinguishable chapters of moderate size A typical example I have found is Yules' ( 1985) The study of Language'. Could anyone so kindly provide other references? I would be much obliged for your help. Farzad Salahshoor Department of Language and Linguistics University of Essex UK e-mail salafrMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueessex.ac.uk Tel. UK code+206+872227
I am wondering if anybody has noticed that in the recent attacks on hypotheses such as Nostratic, Amerind, or even Altaic, the critics almost always keep changing the criteria for demonstrable language relatedness in ways calculated to make Indo-European the sole standard or model of a genuine language family. I have in mind, for ex., the insistence on morphological paradigms being reconstructed before we accept the validity of a proposed family, or the insistence on "complicated" and "unnatural" sound changes (such as *dw -> rk), for example. Nor is it sensible to defend this practice on the grounds that only IE is well- known enough, since there are many many well-established language families besides IE. Moreover, IE is very atypical because of the antiquity of preserved texts (Vedic, Hittite, Mycenean) and the resultant fact that it is a very young family (because the time gap between Proto-IE and the oldest texts is very small as such things go). Thus, a family like Uto-Aztecan or Austronesian would be a much better model. Wouldn't it?Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue