LINGUIST List 5.1337

Mon 21 Nov 1994

Sum: Analogy to 1sg

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Message 1: Sum: Analogy to 1sg

Date: Sun, 20 Nov 94 08:29:49 ESSum: Analogy to 1sg
From: <amrjupiter.cs.wayne.edu>
Subject: Sum: Analogy to 1sg

Some time ago I posted query asking for an an example of an
analogical development in the inflectional system of any language,
preferably an Indo-European language, whereby the 2d and 3d persons
singular were remade in the image of the 1st sg. The very
possibility of such a development appears to have been denied in an
important article by Cowgill on the reflexes of IE laryngeals in
Greek, and it struck me as a bizarre claim, but I could not found
any ready counterexamples.

I would like to thank Robert Hoberman, Lars Borin, Dana Paramskas,
George Fowler, Maggie Winters, and Max Wheeler for responding.
The closest to what I am looking for was identified by Wayles
Browne:

Polish present tenses of the verb 'to eat':

jem 1sg
jesz 2sg
je 3sg

Of these, only jem is inherited. The other two forms have been
remade analogically, replacing what would be expected to come out
as *jesi, *jes'c'. However, even this example is not completely
compelling since it seems that the analogy here involves this verb
taking the endings typical of another conjugation rather than
specifically remodeling the 2sg and 3sg on the basis of the 1sg.

So, was Cowgill right? Can 1sg never serve as the basis for
an analogical remaking of 2sg and 3sg? (There ARE examples of
2sg being (re)modeled on 1sg, Robert Hoberman pointing out
that this is what happened in the perfect of Ge'ez, and I
have since also found discussion of this happening in some
Yemeni Arabic dialects, but the 3sg is not affected in any
of these cases).

Alexis Manaster Ramer
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