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I posted a brief query about a week ago asking for information regarding case attraction in ancient Greek. I am still in the process of looking at initial responses (thank you to those who have commented so far), so the summary will be posted in the near future. In the meantime I wanted to restate the query and ask for additional comments. The basic problem relates to GB Case Theory and the apparent resistance displayed by relative pronouns to "proper" case assignment. For instance, a relative pronoun functioning as the subject of its clause might take the Dative or Genitive Case of its antecedent rather than the expected Nominative case. This phenomenon apparently causes quite a problem for GB syntax. I am interested in 1) how can case attraction be answered from a GB perspective, or 2) what explanations are available from alternate syntax theories? Thanks again for your responses. I expect to post a summary within a few weeks. Mike Beard Wayne State University INTERNET:73131.3101Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuecompuserve.com
In studying Tibetan phonology I notice that coronal consonants are disallowed in the syllable codas, but labials and dorsals are allowed. Q: Is there another language(s) in which this constraint occurs? Personal responses and suggestions most appreciated, summary posted if response is sufficient. Thanks in advance, Beaumont Brush U. Texas, ArlingtonMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
A student in our program is doing a paper on uptalk. She has heard of a paper written by Cynthia McLemore on this topic, but she cannot find the reference. Any information would be greatly appreciated. Any other sources would also be greatly appreciated. We both thank you in advance. Elizabeth Whalley San Francisco State UniversityMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
I'm trying to find out some things about the french word "orange", both as a substantive (the fruit) and an adjective (the colour) : 1) Does the use of "orange" as an adjective follow its use as a substantive ? 2) Was there in the semantice structure of the languages spoken in what we call France now a word to denote the colour we call orange now ? 3) In other words, did the notion of orangeness emerge with the fruit or was there something before ? Thank you for your help !Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue