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We have been discussing the question of the supposed ceiling on the comparative method and whether there is a connection between support for this ceiling and opposition to, for example, the Nostratic theory. There is another similar issue. It seems to me that a lot of the people who are opposed, or think they are opposed without knowing the facts, to theories like Nostratic also seem to hold another curious position, namely, that you cannot show the relatedness of a group of languages by exhibiting systematic correspondences of sounds in the vocabularies of said languages but only by exihibiting systematically related morphological paradigms. I would be curious to see how widespread this position (which is explicitly asserted in Johanna Nichols' book, for example) is and if anybody knows of any reason to uphold it in the face of the fact that lots of languages have no paradigms at all and hence, if we took this doctrine seriously, could not be shown to belong to any families whatsoever. Alexis Manaster Ramer P.S. I should perhaps clarify that by vocabulary I mean any set of shared morphemes or words (incl. pronouns, affixes, etc.), so long as these morphemes are just a list and not a complete paradigm. Thus, when Sapir proved once and for all that the Uto-Aztecan languages were related, he cited a large number of forms, inclduing a few affixes, but no paradigms (like those familiar from Latin or Sanskrit grammar) whatsoever.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Some weeks ago I posted a query on pronoun copy on the list. Several list members have responded. Due to all kinds of (personal) circumstances I have not yet had the opportunity to react on your reactions. This message is only to say thanks to all those who responded. I will contact all of you personally, as soon as possible, but this may still take some time. Your reactions were very useful, THANKS! Best wishes, Heleen BosMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue