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Hello Linguists: I have two questions, the first one is important, the second one is just idle curiosity. 1. Regarding the languages Marathi (Maharashtra, Maharathi, Malhatee, Marthi, or Muruthu) and Hindi (Khari Boli) as spoken in India, do words usually get penultimate stress? I am studying the speech patterns of a man who speaks Marathi as L1, Hindi as L2, and English as L3. Unfortunately, he can't answer my question even though I've tried to explain it to him. Virtually every English word he uses gets penultimate stress -- I'm wondering if this is a carry-over from the L1 or L2. Can anybody out there offer any insight? 2. Just idle curiosity here, does English have any infixes other than fuckin'? I hear students say things such as in-fuckin'-credible (= more than just ordinary incredible). I couldn't think of any other examples in English. Thanks, Chuck Coker CJCokerMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueCSUPomona.Edu ============================================================================== There have been no dragons in my life, only small spiders and stepping in gum. I could have coped with the dragons. -- Anonymous (but wise) ==============================================================================
If we're assuming that subjects are generated at spec-VP, why is it that WH movement must be all the way to spec-CP? why not all movement to spec-IP? why movement to spec-CP for the V2 languages? I realize that a lot of theory might get trashed, but at an empirical level, is there any difference between WH movement to spec-CP vs spec-IP? In Biblical Hebrew, a V2 system contrary to received wisdom, there is no difference: in fact all movement could be unified at spec-IP, and we can get a unified treatment of resumptive pros in the bargain. Just curious.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
In the Handbook of Australian Languages, vol. 3, Crowley sketches Uradhi, a language from the Cape York region. In the sketch he gives the following example (78), p. 363: ula utaga awunya "The dogs are barking/Dogs bark." Now, from the 10 or 15 Australian languages I have looked at, I would have judged this wildly atypical. Generally the simple inflected forms exclude the progressive, and there is some periphrastic or derivational way to encode the progressive. Can anyone tell me whether Uradhi is isolated in this respect, or whether it is part of a larger class of Australian languages operating on the different aspectual principle. Outside of Europe, I have only the following examples that pattern with Uradhi: Mofu-Gudur (Chadic), Trique (Mixtecan), Kammu (Mon-Khmer). I would love to find others. Thanx.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
I can't recall where I read about the following example. It might have been Sperber and Wilson. Does anyone know the exact reference off hand? A military man, in WWII, having been told not to occupy an Italian town called Sind (sp?), sends a telegram to his commanders saying: Peccavi (double sp!!) Translated: "I have sinned". Speaker's meaning: I have captured Sind *and* I have committed a sin. Thanks in advance. -- Robert Stainton -- Philosophy -- Carleton University rstaintoMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueccs.carleton.ca