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Alexis Manaster Ramer asks about the claim that relatedness and/or subgrouping should be established only based on systematic morphological relationships of the sort likely to be observed in paradigms or declensions. I'm familiar with this claim only in a much weaker form, that morphological comparisons are more reliable than phonological ones as a basis for establishing linguistic relationships and subgroups. On this basis, for example, Robert Hetzron in 1976* proposed a rigorous internal subgrouping for the Semitic languages based on affixes in the verb paradigms. Hetzron's proposal that Hebrew, Arabic, and Aramaic constitute a Central Semitic group is, I believe, correct; and it is supported by much more evidence than Hetzron adduces, much of it morphological and morpho-syntactic (e.g., innovation of novel negative markers, etc.). I may be reading too much into these claims of morphological priority in establishing subgrouping, but I have always interpreted them as a reaction to the difficulty of distinguishing convergent from shared phonological development on a principled basis. That is, because it CAN be difficult to determine whether a particular recurrent sound change in a language group represents shared innovation rather than convergent development, it might be pragmatically safer to rely on morphological innovation. Thus, in the case of the Semitic languages, such changes as *p to /f/ or *g to /jh/ (as in junk) would, if treated as shared innovation, lead to subgroups that are inconsistent with those deduced by other means. On the other hand, "unusual" changes like the change of Proto-Semitic glottalic consonants to pharyngealized consonants are much more likely to represent shared innovation, given the typological rarity of pharyngealized consonants. With regard to Fritz Newmeyer's questions about comparative syntactic reconstruction, I don't know of any systematic published counters to Jeffers' (and others') claims that it is *in principle* impossible. However, I think that a good case can be made that this is an overly pessimistic assessment. The problem, of course, is the appropriate context: we compare phonemes in words and/or morphemes and morphemes in paradigms, but it's not clear what the context might be for word orders. Presumably discourse context plays a role. I would imagine that if all the languages in a family shared an unusual word order (vis a vis their dominant types, whatever those might be) in counterfactuals, we might want to attribute that order to their latest shared ancestor. Pragmatically speaking, it's a lot easier to find information about the morphological context of particular phonemes than it is to find reliable information about the larger context for sentence and construction types. Nonetheless, at least inchoately (and perhaps it is the inchoateness that Jeffers objects to), *some* notion of syntactic reconstruction is surely behind claims that Proto-Indo-European was SOV or Proto-Semitic was SVO, and the like. *"Two Principles of Genetic Reconstruction", Lingua 38: 89-104. Alice Faber FaberMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuehaskins.yale.edu
In writing in LINGUIST 5.1393 on another topic, martinhaMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuefub46.zedat.fu-berlin.de (Martin Haspelmath) says: ) It is true that Latin syntax could hardly be reconstructed from ) modern Romance languages, but neither could Latin morphology, and ) even the view of Latin phonology that we would get from Romance is ) very distorted. Our reconstruction of protolanguage grammar is ) always imperfect... In looking at historical reconstruction done for S. American languages (largely phonological), I've often wondered about this. Just how much could we trust the reconstructions that we did? One of my rules of thumb for those languages was that if an item was longer than one syllable, it was suspect as being polymorphemic, and if it was longer than two syllables it was almost certainly polymorphemic. The problem is that most attempts at reconstruction ignored this areal phenomenon (sometimes because the data was simply unavailable). From what I know of Romance languages, I would say polysyllabic morphemes are more common there. If anything, that should make it easier to reconstruct Latin, since you have more to work with. (Of course, the morphology of Romance languages is much better known than that of the languages of S. America, which also helps!) So if Latin would be very imperfectly reconstructed, what hope is there for Native American languages? Has anyone ever attempted, as an exercise in the comparative method, reconstruction of Latin from the Romance languages, then compared the results with the real thing? Or reconstruction of any other attested language from its descendents?
) From: amrMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueares.cs.wayne.edu ) ) It seems ) to me that a lot of the people [...] ) also seem to hold another curious position, namely, that you ) cannot show the relatedness of a group of languages by exhibiting ) systematic correspondences of sounds in the vocabularies of said ) languages but only by exhibiting systematically related morphological ) paradigms. [...] ) ) Alexis Manaster Ramer Good Lord! I have been watching this thread with a somewhat jaundiced eye, thinking "I'm not going to get into this", but this... )From my experience with languages of Vanuatu, morphological paradigms are the *least* stable features, followed by phonology, then, most stable, lexical. Yes, I remember having been taught that, I mean, about morphology being most reliable, actually, the *only* reliable criterion. I was also taught a lot of other stuff which experience showed me to be false. Think of it, why should this reliance on morphology have come about? 1. A hangover from the elaboration of the comparative method on Indo-European, or, I should rather say, on the discovery of Sanskrit. It may so happen that members of that language family have been particularly retentive morphologically. Whence generalization to all languages. The fallacy of extrapolating. All Irish barmaids are redheads. 2. It is easy to measure and count lexical similarity. Claims based on such measurements are therefore more easily open to scrutiny, and to refutation. (An aside: there's been some discussion on whether linguistics is a science, in the meaning of Karl Popper. Well, here's one domain where it could be). On the other hand, how do you measure morphological similarity? And worse, systematic similarities of morphological paradigms? This, then, is hardly open to refutation. Speaking of the devil, I received a letter yesterday from Merritt Ruhlen "I would appreciate it if you could send me a copy of your forthcoming article in Anthropos concerning the probability of chance resemblances". Which I did, commenting, meaning it as a sort of salve -- but perhaps it will be felt as salt: "In general I take a dim view of comparative linguistics. Its various methodologies are mostly ad hoc and without a sound basis, often relying on a complete misunderstanding of the processes at work [here a few examples]. And the same claims and methods crop up perennially." Which is also my thoughts and feelings today. (* sigh *) j.guy
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