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Dear Linguist, This is a request for information regarding the kinds of pronunciation that are possible for a person who has no tongue, for the purpose of the editing of a novel set in 11th-12th-century Spain. A man has had his tongue removed at the root, so that he may not speak what he has seen. What sounds would he be able to make, after the wound has healed, but before he has practised much? At the moment he uses a lot of sibilants, which I would imagine to be impossible, except for some kind of sshhing sound. With my limited knowledge, I'd have thought he'd have been limited to labials and fricatives - m, p, b, f, v, w. And h? What about vowels? The words he presently attempts to articulate are listed below. Tongueless approximations forthese would be most gratefully received. Take Velaz Ammar Muwardis What happened Why More Where Yes Galleenus Care Jehane Eliane I am so sorry Don't think historic pronunciation of the Spanish/Moorish need to be taken account of. Could you please reply to seaboyerMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueepas.utoronto.ca Many thanks, Jude Seaboyer
could someone please clarify and exemplify the function (and
definition) of the slash ("/") in HPSG (Head driven grammar).
Many thnaks. Michal Ephratt (RHLH702
HAIFAUVM)
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I am trying to collect examples of pseudo-explanations of linguistic phenomena which invoke supposed beliefs or customs such as the following: (a) Hopi pluralizes the word for 'cloud' the way that it usually pluralizes only animate nouns, so Whorf claimed that this proves that the Hopis believe clouds to be alive, (b) Malagasy and some other languages tend to use passive rather than active voice forms in imperatives, so it is has often been claimed (I even did this myself once) that this is a matter of politeness, because by using a passive you are avoiding actually ordering the addressing around, while still making it clear what you want done. (c) One of the languages of the Torres Straits uses the dual in speaking to a married woman, and this was explained by saying that a married woman was assumed to have a child with her!!! (d) There is even the famous case of a Russian work which claimed that the adjective *beremennyj* 'pregnant' had no masculine forms (like the one I just cited) because only females can get pregnant and then USED this very form, saying that a "beremennyj muzhchina" (= "pregnant-MASC man") is inconceivable! These are the kinds of things I would like to collect. And it would be especially if there were a case where the explanation was valid and not pseudo, of course, Please send the examples to me and I will post a summary.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue