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Concerning J.B. Johannessen's posting and the subsequent discussion (5.115, 5.123, 5.136) on examples such as the following, I would like to comment briefly. 1. a. There was/*were a man and two wo men in the room. b. There were/*was two women and a man in the room. and 2. a. A man and two women were/*was in the room. b. Two women and a man were/*was in the room. In my dissertation (U. Texas-Austin, 1993, "Coordination and Concord in Generalized Categorial Grammar"), I look at some of these kinds of examples, and advocate a theory to explain them in terms of pronominal incorporation within a gen. categorial framework. In this view, verbs in languages with subj/verb agreement have a null or partially-specified incorporated pronominal in one argument slot (possibly the remnant of topicalization processes like left-dislocation ala Givon (1975) and others). The verb, which is itself a function, thus contains a function-valued argument. Another way of looking at this is that s/v agreement is the result of function composition along with a semantic/pragmatic resolution of features, the latter process computing a subsumption point, beneath which lies possibly a range of interpretations (of the discourse referents). Pleonastic/expletive pronominals occurring in existential or presentative constructions like (1), having null or minimal featural content, compose with the verb prior to the verb's combining with the (postverbal) NP, which has non-null featural content. Variation in the agreement acceptable to speakers in (1a), for example, could be due to the order of combination of the postverbal conjuncts with the verb (and resolution of the featural content), as represented in the following (abstracting away from the kinds of rules involved here): 3. a. there was a man and two women pro verb np conj np ---------- ------- x y ---------- z --------------- s b. there were a man and two women pro verb np conj np ---------- --------------- x y --------------- z --------------- s In addition, perhaps some of the variation in the inverted forms are due to there being at least two differently typed conjunctions: the ordinary general conjunction and an NP-only comitative-like form (the latter perhaps accounting for the "farthest-conjunct" strategy in some languages and constructions, as reported by Corbett (1991), et al.) Any "explanation", I think, also has to address questions of topic/focus, desubjectivization, etc. Leo ObrstMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Perhaps I should rephrase my point to make it clearer: the very fact that in order to account for *these man and woman, we need to look at the features of the conjuncts is inconsistent with the spirit of the constituent-structure view of syntax, although admittedly the correct languages can apparently be generated. The whole point of constituent structure is that you put pieces larger than a morpheme or a word and smaller than the whole sentences together and then assemble those into yet bigger pieces and so on. In other words, once you put 'man and woman' together you have that as a piece and should thenceforward operate with that piece without looking back. Of course, Bloomfield could have been wrong to adopt the constituent structure model if it turns out that languages allow themselves to look back. What I referred to as the dependency model is simply a more general model in which you CAN look back. Of course, you can "cheat" by encoding the internal structure of constituents into features which you attach to these constituents, but that is precisely what the constituent structure idea was supposed not to do.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue