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Max Wheeler asks about any good examples of shifts TEMP > LOC rather than
the commonplace reverse shift. Off the top of my head, it seems to me that
the literate "the former" and "the latter" might be examples (daughters of
"respectively"). These clearly have temporal meaning in spoken usage, and
that can be taken as primary -- although etymologically we can trace them
back to locatives like "first" = former. I'm not sure about the ultimate
origin of "latter" > "last" temp/loc and "late" temp. In any case, the
point is that the literate uses are spatial derivatives of established
temporal uses. Finally, let's notice that writing provides a clearly
motivated context for the conversion of time (speech) to space. Beyond that,
it is traditional to take LOC meanings as primary, although this seems to
be a visual prejudice in the innumerable cases of languages in which both
temp and loc uses of particular "adverbs" (usually originally relational
nouns) are as old as history. [The prejudice probably emanates from cases
in which the temp/locs can be traced to body parts, e.g., "ahead" ("behind?"
--just kidding) etc etc. Wheeler's question is longstanding. If we do find
bona fide examples of TEMP > LOC outside of writing, what could motivate
them? (Somebody reread Whorf's stuff of Hopi space-time and research
some more modern spin-offs).
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As far as I can tell, French 'depuis' is an example of a preposition developing a locative sense after being initially purely temporal. The temporal sense, 'since', still persists of course. Etymological dictionaries of French appear to agree that 'depuis' was purely temporal in the twelfth century, but around 1340 began to turn up as an locative (more strictly ablative) marker, with the sense of spatial 'from'. This is exemplified by a modern French sentence such as Depuis ma chambre, je pouvais entendre sa voix >From my bedroom, I could hear his/her voice In contrast, the Spanish cognate 'despues (de)' only has a temporal sense. Considering the many examples of the spatial use of 'depuis' given by Grevisse in his 'Le Bon Usage', 8th edition, 1964, para. 934bis, I am struck by the fact that most of them, like the example given above, indicate a point from which (or in effect at which) a particular perception (seeing or hearing) takes place. I would be interested to know from experts in and/or native speakers of French if this is indeed the predominant context for choosing 'depuis' rather than the more straightforward 'de'. Lachlan Mackenzie Free University AmsterdamMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue