Editor for this issue: <>
An MA student here is working on nonstandard auxiliary use in New Zealand English. On the West Coast of the South Island, by contrast with Christchurch on the east coast, she finds that an unexpectedly large proportion of teenagers accept (a) without qualms: (a) So Andrew stands on his desk and be's Alexander the Great. The West Coast happens also to be an area where the early white settlers included relatively many Irish, so one is naturally tempted to link this with the 3rd singular _be's_ reported for Hiberno-English. But the sense seems wrong; Hiberno-English _be's_ is said to be habitual, whereas in (a) the sense is rather 'acts, pretends to be'. Anecdotally, we have reports of another nonhabitual _be's_, as in (b) -- this one in Christchurch too: (b) If he be's good, he'll get to go out tonight. Here it seems as if the idiom _be good_ 'behave well' is resisting the peculiar allomorphy of the ordinary auxiliary _be_. Can anyone out there shed any light on nonhabitual 3rd singular _be's_, or point us to relevant publications? Andrew Carstairs-McCarthy Department of Linguistics, University of Canterbury, Private Bag 4800, Christchurch, New Zealand Phone +64-3-364 2211; home phone +64-3-355 5108 Fax +64-3-364 2065Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
This question is cross-posted to Linguist and Flteach. Apologies for any duplication. Dear netters, I am hoping that some of you can point me to reliable and reasonably up-to-date STATISTICS on any or all of the following (either on the net or published elsewhere): * percentage of US college graduates fluent in second language * US college foreign language entrance requirements * US college foreign language graduation requirements * US graduate school foreign language entrance requirements * international comparisons of the above statistics I am not on this list, so please respond to me directly. Thanks for your help. T. F. Mills tomillsMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuediana.cair.du.edu University of Denver Library 2150 E. Evans Ave. Denver CO 80208 USA
In Introduction to Phonological Theory, Robert Harms mentions the case of Finnish, where proper nouns are exempt from certain phonological rules, not because of their phonetic/phonemic make up but simply because they are proper nouns. Does anyone know, first, if this is a general case - are ALL proper nouns exempt from a 'significant' number of rules, and are there other cases in other languages. You can send responses to me or to the list; I'll summarize if there are sufficient responsesMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
When typing e-mail messages, I often observe what seems to be the keyboard equivalent of assimilation in speech, e.g. (1) anticipatory "assimilation": artuculation (articulation) mastakes (mistakes) (2) perservatory "assimilation" I found some software someware (I found some software somewhere) Is it just me or does it also happen to other people? Have there been any psycholinguistic studies done on similar phenomena in typing? Wenchao Li Lady Margaret Hall, Oxford UniversityMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue