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Several weeks ago, I summarized the responses I received to a query regarding the ape language controversy and the extent to which the issue was still live post Terrace et al. I received several post hoc additions which I communicated earlier; here are a few others. Derek Bickerton, _Language & Species_, Chicago 1990 (University of Chicago Press) Susan Fischer, "Sign Language and Linguistic Theory," in C. Otero, ed. _Noam Chomsky: Critical Assessments_ vol. 4. Language and Communication 14.1, dedicated to the subject of primate communication, includes 8 papers on the subject. Authors: Barbara J King (Guest Editor); Donald H Owings; Marc D Hauser; Rose A Sevcik & E Sue Savage-Rumbaugh; Stuart Shanker; Philip Lieberman; Kathleen R Gibson; T J Taylor. My thanks to: M.M.H. Bax Chris Pringle Susan Fischer Michael KacMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
A couple of weeks ago we posted a request for examples of historical phonological developments in which either s becomes voiced but the other fricatives don't, or vice versa. We received a number of interesting and very useful replies, for which we are grateful to all respondents. Here is the promised (and customary) summary: I believe that s => r / V__V also occurs in the history of Old English, but suspect you have that example in mind already. The Siouan languages have regularly corresponding voiceless fricatives (modulo the effects of s ~ s^ ~ x sound symbolism), but most of the Mississippi Valley group voice some fricatives in *V'__ V somewhat irregularly. ... Old English voiced f th s but not sh or x (leaf/leave, mouth/mouthe, house(n)./house(v.) -- the verbs normally had vocalic inflections -- but not bishop (OE biscop) or laugh(e) (OE hleahhan). Medieval northern German, Dutch, and the Kentish dialect of English had voicing BEFORE voiced segments of f th s but not sh or x (Vater, now devoiced again, Kentish vat; das < *dhat < *that; See (Du. Zee); but not in mischen, machen), and so on. Icelandic voiced intervocalic fricatives but I've forgotten the details -- see the standard handbooks. Germanic also had rhotacism, cf. was/were, lose/lorn, etc. ... Tamil fricativizes postvocalic stops and voices some of them, but I think does not voice s. I don't know a Tamil ref. offhand. There are scores of diachronic and synchronic examples. Especially see the handbooks on Romance linguistics (Pope, Rohlfs, etc.), and the standard diachronic phonetic texts, e.g. Grammont 1933. [We think Stampe is referring to rhotacism here. Assuming that rhotacism typically involves the development s->z->r, it is an example of s (but not necessarily other fricatives) becoming voiced.] (From Kevin Donnelly) This is not what your are looking for but might be of interest. In the Irish Gaelic of Conamara the "slender" (i.e. palatised) s has gone nearly all the way to z. (Jules F. Levin) ... 2) There are South Slavic (Serbo'Croation?) dialects where intervocalic /zh/ passes to /r/, so that SCR _mozhe_ 'one can' becomes synonymous with _more_ 'sea'. True, this doesn't fit the specifics of your inquiry, but it is a phonetic variation on a phonological theme. And I'm certain there are other cases scattered around. (1) Spanish s < Lat s, but zero/beta < Lat f, eg. ROSA > [rosa] but STEPHANU > [esteBan] (2) Tuscan z/s < Lat s but f < f [rO:za]/[rO:sa] but [stefano] ... look at Rohlfs' Historische Grammatik der Italiensiche Sprache und ihre Dialekten (Sic!) vol. 1 only. There will be more info in there. ... Many thanks to all who replied. --- John Coleman & Jane Stuart-SmithMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue