Editor for this issue: <>
This question relates to the Latin gerundive form. I would like to know if any research has been completed on the history of the Latin language. Specifcally, I would like to know if anyone has hypothesized on the grammatical ization process leading to the gerundive forms. Most such forms can be traced to paraphrastic phrases involving a locative preposition and a nominalized verb form. Might this also be the origin of forms within this paradigm, or is such anthropological work impossible at this point? If you have any relating to this question, please respond to my e-mail address. Thanks in advance! Joseph G Collentine, Asst. Professor of Spanish East Carolina University Foreign Languages and Literatures General Classroom Bldg. 3321A Greenville, NC 27858 (919) 757-6232 Bitnet: FLCOLLENMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueECUVM1 Internet: FLCOLLEN
ECUVM.CIS.ECU.EDU
Could anyone kindly direct me (appropriate e-mail address) as to how to subscribe to SLART-L? Many thanks. A. Martin.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Can anyone give me any information on Japanese 'r'? Hinds says 'lightly flapped' and alveolar, while others give a range of possibilities, including retroflex. The small number of Japanese I have listened to carefully definitely have an alveolar rather than retroflex sound, but while it is brief enough to be a tap it seems to have some laterality associated with it, especially when slowed down for the poor foreigner! The tap part seems wrong for English /l/ and the laterality wrong for English /r/. Are there published discussions of this? Palatograms? What is the right IPA symbol? Is it regionally variable in Japan? If there's interest, I'll summarise for the list. Thank you. Laurie Bauer Laurie.BAUERMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuevuw.ac.nz Department of Linguistics, Victoria University, PO Box 600, Wellington, New Zealand Ph: +64 4 472 1000 x 8800 Fax: +64 4 471 2070
Is the nasal assimilation rule in English regarded as expressing the neutralization of nasal consonants before [at least] voiceless stops, in surface phonology? If so, I may have run across a counter-example. Newsweek, 7/25/94, uses the word "inpatient" (as o opposed to "outpatient", of course) for someone who has to be treated in a hospital. This contrasts in my pronunciation with "impatient." Of course there are suprasegmental differences as well. I understand perfectly well HOW we get these two forms--chronological layering and so forth. I'm just wondering how people out there would look at this in terms of a formal phonotactic description of CSE. Note also 'input' and 'imput', which in my usage seem to be free variants with the same meaning. --Jules Levin, University of California, RiversideMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue