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A colleague who makes his living as a translator of technical dox asked me something yesterday that I couldn't answer. "But", I told him, "I bet I know where to find some folks who CAN answer.!" So, folks, here it is: "How did it come about that Western European languages such as English, French, Spanish and Portuguese have chosen to make most plural words by adding an 's' or 'es' to the singular? Italian, Greek, German, and, I believe, the Slavic languages do not do this. Latin did not either." I thought that an interesting question, and hereby throw it out to the net of distributed linguist knowledge. [If this is just a dumb, newbie question, I apologise.] George Gale ggaleMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuevax1.umkc.edu
In response to Mr. Rowlet's querry on not versus n't It strikes me that not cannot be interpreted as a concord marker, contrary to contracted n't: 1. He did not do nothing 2. He didn't do nothing probably because not is not avalaible in the varieties of English where concord is allowed. This needs to be verified, of course. This might be wrong. In my own research on negative concord in Quebec French, negation adverb pas is found to both involve in concord-marking and double negation: 3. J'ai pas vu personne I have not seen nobody 'I haven't seen anybody' or 'I did not see nobody (I saw Jack)' I'd like to take the opportunity to mention that in formal English, not seems to have a much wider distribution than is generally assumed. In interrogative contexts, not can place before the verb: 4. Do people not say such things? (from a paper read at 20th LACUS Forum) This also seems possible in subjunctive context, but i won't try to invent an example. Does anyone have any idea about those two facts? Pierre Larrivee Departement de langues et linguistique, Universiti Laval, Quebec, Canada, G1K 7P4 3914larpMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuevm1.ulaval.ca
I am posting this for a colleague in the English Dept here. Please respond directly to me. -- Stan Dubinsky ******************************************************************** I am working of the fiction of Alice Walker would like to find out if her use of African names is satirical. One of her characters, enamored of African culture, renames herself "Wangero Leewanika Kemanjo". Is this wholly a fabrication on Walker's part -- or is it a legitimate African name? In what language? Might Walker intend some joke, as for example that the name, translated, would mean "I am a goose", or some such. The character's original name is Dee, short for Dicie. Any chance that either of these, ironically, is in fact African? David Cowart English Department Univ of South CarolinaMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
I'm looking for references to accounts of locative inversion; e.g., Down the hill rolled the boy. which posit a V2 remnant type of account, within a GB or GB-related paradigm, i.e., in the above example, the claim would be that the PP is in [SPEC,CP], the verb in COMP, and the subject remaining in [SPEC, IP]. I'll post responses to the list if there's interest. Mary Tait Speech and Language Pathology Northwestern UniversityMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue