Editor for this issue: T. Daniel Seely <dseely
emunix.emich.edu>
In response to Michael Newman (to whom I am very grateful for the references), I think that there are two separate issues, aren't there: one is the one he illuminates so well for modern English, namely, the fact that the epicene HE biases perceptions in favor of male inter- pretations; the other is that, even if that were not the case, there would still be something very suspicious about the mere fact that male/masc. pronouns and agreement are used so widely in languages of the world for the epicene. I am not even sure that we can show that the two are related. I would guess that in languages that truly lack gender, one would still find some of the same perceptual biases (although I am only guessing). Alexis Manaster RamerMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue