Editor for this issue: T. Daniel Seely <dseely
emunix.emich.edu>
Re Lydie E. Meunier's latest, I did not mean to say that I consider oppression of any kind to be of no importance, but merely that in studying linguistic usages it is of no importance (or at least less importance, OK?) what the real situation re oppression and the like is than what people perceive it to be. If (as some seem to believe) there is no oppression of women by men, I meant to say, that would not be what we would want to know in order to explain sexist language, so long as people believe that men are better, stronger, or whatever, so long as people believe that men are and deserve to be dominant and/or more prominent in public life, etc. Because even if these things were not true (although I think by large they obviously are), so long as people believe they are (and certainly all cultures I am familiar with do), then that would suffice to explain sexist language. In the same way, we as linguists need not discuss the existence of God in order to be able to say that certain linguistic usages seem to be derived from such a belief. So, yes, I do believe women have been and continue to be oppressed in various ways, I am astounded that there are people who would deny it, but I also would say that in order to explain sexist language, that is not what we need to discuss. Alexis Manaster RamerMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue