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I'm trying to find some concrete examples of sound changes taking place in a language due to non-native speakers adding in sounds that they think belong in the target language, but doing so incorrectly. For example, American English speakers talks about peppers called [habaNeros] (where N = enya), because enya is a "typical Spanish" sound, even though the word in Spanish is [habanero]. Similarly, "empanadas" are empaNadas in the Phillipines. One other example is English speakers talking about [viSiswa] for "vichyssoise" because of the general rule against pronouncing final consonants in French. I'm looking for evidence that these things become grammatical and change the language, at least in the non-native-speaker community. Anecdotal evidence is welcome, but anything that's really firmly grounded would be most wlcome. Please reply to nagyMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueunagi.cis.upen.edu, as i'm not a regular reader of Linguist. Thanks, Naomi Nagy (U Penn)
I am trying to collect any references on Grassmann's Law in Indic (Vedic, Sanskrit, etc.), in particular work published after 1980. I am interested in historical (Indo-Europeanist) work as well as work in phonological theory of any variety. I will post a summary. Alexis MRMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
I'm curious to know if anything has been written on the transition of some written signs into speech. For instance: We used to believe that "real" men didn't show their emotions could, I think, be expressed in speech as: We used to believe that real - in quotation marks - men ... or We used to believe that quote real (unquote) men ... or by 'imitating' double quotation marks with one or two fingers of both hands when pronouncing 'real'. One can thereby distance oneself from the opinion expressed, and employ it to convey irony (i.e. those aren't really the real men!) Another example would be the use of the word 'period': Elvis was the greatest there ever was, period. i.e. no more discussion necessary. While I presume this originates in North America I've also heard it used a few times by British or Irish people, even though a period is referred to over here as a full stop. Another case would be the use of 'underline' to mean 'emphasize', which is paralleled by German 'unterstreichen' and French 'souligner'. Has anything ever been written on this topic, or can anyone think of other examples from any language? Dewi Evans (DewiMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueollamh.ucd.ie.)
To recipients of the Linguist List: I am searching for oral histories on minority nationalities in China, especially oral histories of the Jews in China. References or contacts for this topic or individuals working on it would be greatly appreciated. Also, if you know of any articles etc. about discourse analysis of Chinese or a minority language in China that too would be greatly appreciated. email: parkermMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuegusun.acc.georgetown.edu