Editor for this issue: Annemarie Valdez <avaldez
emunix.emich.edu>
Dear Linguists! I am posting this for one of my final year students, who has been encouraged to try her luck, after having heard from her friend Ono Aine that she had really got replies to her query about Linguistic Human Rights. Please send replies to me. K. Shimizu: shimizuMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuelet.kumamoto-u.ac.jp ---------------------------------------------------------------------- September 27 Hello, I am a linguistics student in Kumamoto university. I am looking for information about Cockney English and London English. Could you let me know about the differences between them in detail? In some books they are used in the same meaning,however in some books they are not. I would like to know about their definition. Thank you. Mariko Tsugawa
It is well-known that the distribution of *personne* differs from that of *rien* in most varieties of contemporary French. Generally speaking, while *personne* is restricted to its thematic A-position, *rien* is able to float leftwards in a number of constructions, e.g.: (1) Je n' ai rien vu vs. Je n' ai vu personne I *ne* have *rien* seen I *ne* have seen *personne* (2) ...de ne rien voir vs. ...de ne voir personne of *ne* *rien* see of *ne* see *personne* I am aware of no published attempt to explain the different behaviours of these two items and would be grateful to any subscribers who do know of work on this topic if they would let me have details. I will inform the list of the results of this request. Many thanks, Paul Rowlett Department of Modern Languages University of Salford Salford, M5 4WT EnglandMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
I am interested in references of textbooks for undergraduate courses on Spanish Phonology or Romance Languages Phonology. I will be very thankful for any help on this matter. Liliana Sanchez e-mail address: lilianaMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuecsulb.edu
Dear Linguists, My partner, who works at a bank, brought to my attention this phenomenon, which I've been noticing more often since then: the increasing use of the reflexive in places where it wouldn't seem to be traditional usage. It seems to occur most frequently with an indirect (or direct) object in the second person: "I shall forward yourself the report later." or "I shall forward the report to yourself later." But it seems to be cropping up in more and more cases: "You can see Paul and myself at 3pm." "Give it to myself at the meeting later." "Paul and myself will be working on this project." My partner was asked to review a report containing something like the last of these sentences, changed the `and myself' to `and I', and was told by several people that he was wrong, that it should be ` and myself'. So, what I was wondering was: Has anyone else noticed this takeover by reflexives, or is it confined to the Australian banking and computer industries? Is anyone aware of an explanation for it? If there's enough interest (> 3 people), I'll post a summary, along with some observations. Thanks, Mark DrasMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue