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Wow! It is amazing how many people on the list are ready to come out in defense of prescriptivism. But can we agree that the case of second language teaching is not really the crucial one, since here one could easily argue that all we are doing is telling the learner what native speakers do, i.e., really being descriptive. UNLESS of course we tell learners to say things which are not in fact said by native speakers (or to avoid those which are) in the name of some prescriptive idea. I think this happens in second language teaching quite a bit, but then it is clear that THAT is NOT what the various colleagues who have written on this point had in mind, isn't it? Bloomfield, in a paper which I rarely if ever see mentioned, sought to lay the groundwork for a theory of how societies decide what is "correct" and showed that the notion of "correctness" is not restricted to literate societies with grammarians and dictionaries, Maybe we can go from there.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
The recent discussions of "prescriptivism" as a straw man have raised some important issues about our stance towards our science, but I think it's important not to forget that an analytic stance is more than just a polite fiction. As one simple example, I recently tried to teach my undergraduate acquisition students about the acquisition of passive in English, and mentioned in passing that the "get" passive was typically produced before the "be" passive. I looked around the room and saw expressions of shock and confusion. Constructions that are not officially taught and described are invisible in this way--we can only see them when we are taught to see structures as they are, and not only as they are taught. Another example: trying to get native speakers of Hindi to tell you what they really say colloquially has been in my experience nearly impossible. They see their language through a prescriptivist filter even more obscuring than that practiced in typical pedagogy of U.S. English. I'm not sure, but in some of the posts on this topic people seem to be arguing that any notion of language "correctness" is inherently prescriptivist. But there is a danger of conflating two separate critiques of a simplistic anti-prescriptivism. Some so-called prescriptive grammarians derived their rules from studies of actual usage (a descriptivist stance on "correctness"), but others surely have promoted certain dialects at the expense of others. The real damage of prescriptivism to linguistic minorities is not a "straw man"--consider the African American children diagnosed as mentally retarded or language disordered on the basis of dialect differences. I struggle to train future speech-language pathologists who are blissfully unaware that the copula is optional in the dialects of many Americans, or that formal tests constructed for one population cannot be used to diagnose disorder in another. Perhaps respondents to this topic feel that such issues are so well-known that they need no repetition. But in interacting with my students, who in the future will have the power to label children as "normal" or "disabled", the prescriptivist stance they usually start from seems far from being a straw man. Lynne Hewitt Dept. of Communication Disorders Penn StateMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Dear Jacques: Rather than being a straw man as you say, or something relatively new as you quote Alexis saying, precriptivism is in fact very old stuff in linguistics, going back all the way to the ancient Latin grammarians and anomaly vs. analogy. When American linguists speak of it they think of its manifesxtations in respect to English grammar and English teaching, and here it goes back in a continuous line in America to Noah Webster, who sought to differentiate "American" from "British" English. But its origins in respect to English grammar are continuous from the reaction against English in Britain's being based on a London standard -- all part of the bourgeois class struggle, the history since the 18th century being nicely summarized by the non-Marxist H.A. Gleason, Jr., Linguistics and English Grammar, N.Y.: Holt, 1965. What all this business about usage has to do with your discussion I find it hard to figure out: going by usage was the first shibboleth of descriptive vs. prescriptive grammar, not to speak of anomaly vs. analogy, and also goes back at least to the ancient Latin grammarians. Was it Quintilian (or maybe anti-Quintilian)? Cheers, KVT (=Karl V. Teeter, Professor of Linguistics, Emeritus, Harvard University)Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
I am rather confused by the discussion on 'prescriptive grammars' and on the amount of discussion this question has generated. I would suggest that the linguistic critics of prescriptivism are certainly not opposed to dictionaries or teaching grammars but are concerned about this issue because of the language 'pundits' who bemoan the degradation of the English (or French, or...) language and view most language change as degradation. It is important for linguists to show that people like Edwin Newman in his books "Strictly Speaking" and "A Civil Tongue" are just plain ignorant of language change when they rant against those who use the word 'hopefully' to mean "I hope" instead of using it 'properly' to mean 'with hope'. Perhaps the Unicorn Society of Lake Superior State College which issues an annual "dishonor" list of words and phrases of which they do not approve have a sense of humor which we can all enjoy, but we should not forget the 'educational psychologists' who promulgated the view that speakers of Black English were illogical as revealed by their language. Such prescriptivists are the rightful targets of linguists. We all know that the prescriptists (not the writers of dictionaries or teaching grammars) throughout history used their 'elitism' and 'dialect supremacy" arguments for political purposes. See, for example the quote in the Fromkin & Rodman Intro text from the British journal "London Review" askingJefferson "Why, after trampling upon the honour of our country and representing it as little better than a land of barbarism - why..perpetually trample also upon the very grammar of our language" They go on: "...we will forgive all your attacks...upon on national character but for the future spare -- O spare, we besech you, our mother tongue." The distinction between teaching grammars and prescriptive views should be obvious. In addition I do not know anyone in the field who opposes the notion that whatever is considered the 'standard' may have social consequences and therefore probably needs to be learned and used by those who wish to succeed in certain professions, jobs, etc in a society in which those who know this dialect are in power. What many of us are rightfully, I think, still concerned with is the view that one dialect of a language is better, more complex, etc etc than another from a linguistic (not a social) point of view, and we are concerned with just as the language pundits in Greece who believed that the language of Homer was being destroyed (during the time of Aristophanes) were wrong, so are their counterparts today regarding any of the languages or dialects spoken around the world.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue