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As a linguist and a Greek I am very interested in getting your feedback on my "solution" to the linguistic Macedonian question. The way I have approached this question to my students is to refer to the issue of linguistic variety (as opposed to language or dialect) and to support the use of a qualifier in front of Macedonian, that is either slav Macedonian (for the variety spoken in FYROM) or Greek Macedonian (for the variety spoken in Greek Macedonia). This way we aknowledge both varieties, regardless of their status as "languages" or "dialects", and respect their power and significance in the way people identify themsleves as members of one group or the other, with boundaries that are not always as clearcut as portayed in the media. I find it unjust that slav Macedonian is traditionally recognised as a linguistic variety (and traditionally referred to as "Macedonian" without a qualifier), while the Greek variety of Macedonian, with its set of lexical items and a distinct accent as spoken in the greek Macedonian villages hasn't been given any attention or recognition. It is important, moreover, to acknowledge that linguistics as a science plays an important political role, since language is power and the most powerful means of making sense of and clasiffying the world (Dale Spender and many other feminist linguists have said so before). Awaiting your comments, RoulaMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
This is mostly in response to a recent posting by Alvarez-Caccamo on the linguistic status of Galician (or Galizan). If I understand his arguments correctly, he defends the view that Galician is a Portuguese dialect, against two other possibilities: (a) Galician is an independent language and (b) Galician is a Spanish dialect. In my opinion this brings us back to the original question. From a purely linguistic point of view, it is not so obvious that Spanish and Portuguese are two separate languages. Certainly, in their written form the two codes are mutually intelligible to a very high degree. The spoken forms are less similar. I am a native speaker of Spanish and it took me about a week of coursework for spoken Brazilian Portuguese to become 90% transparent. The difference between the two codes is thus no greater than that between standard Italian and many so-called Italian dialects and it also appears to be much smaller than that between many types of Swiss German and standard German. The way I see it, if Portuguese and Spanish are considered different languages but Piedmontese is taken to be an Italian dialect, this is purely because of extra-linguistic (i.e. political, cultural) considerations. I would like to be corrected if I am wrong. Now, what about Galician? Galician and Portuguese were the same language initially; but for centuries they have been evolving in separate directions. Unlike Portuguese, Galician has been heavily influenced by Spanish in its phonology and to some extent in its lexicon. As Alvarez-Caccamo states, the type of Galician used on television sounds a lot like Spanish. I would guess that tv-Galician is equally understandable to Spanish and to Portuguese speakers. Alvarez-Caccamo is probably right in his belief that for Galician to survive it must move in the direction of Portuguese. That is, it must take standard Portuguese as its normative model. At the present moment, however, tv-Galician (which, I suppose, can be taken as the current standard) is a speech form that resembles standard Portuguese much more than Spanish in its syntax, morphology and lexicon but whose phonology is rather different and contains a number of Spanish (as opposed to Portuguese) features. Other forms of Galician are, nevertheless, more different from Spanish. But if we leave aside all extralinguistic considerations, from a taxonomic point of view, I don't think it is so obvious that present-day Galician is a form of Portuguese and not a separate language. A linguist could justify adopting one or the other position equally well. In fact, I know linguists who are native speakers of Galician and prefer to consider Galician as a separate language. Since, to begin with, from a purely linguistic point of view it is not so obvious that Portuguese and Spanish must be considered two separate languages any more than Milanese and Italian or Zurich German and standard German, the status of Galician is even murkier. If Norwegians, Swedes and Danes want to have independent standard languages, even though they understand each other with little problem, that's their business. If all Romance speakers in Italy want to adopt a single standard and to refer to their local varieties as dialects of Italian (even though they are not mutually intelligible), that's also their business. The Galician case should not be any different (i.e. it should be up to them to decide). If most Galician speakers shared Alvarez-Caccamo's point of view, we linguists would have to take Galician as a dialect of Portuguese. If, on the other hand, most of them think that Galician is a separate language, we must also accept this. I have no idea how many Galician-speakers are in each camp. The general point, then, is that it is rarely the case that linguistic boundaries are so clear that a linguist has no doubts in deciding how to classify genetically related neighboring speech forms. Jose Ignacio Hualde Dept. of Spanish, Italian, and Portuguese 4080 FLB Univ. of Illinois, Urbana, IL 61801 jihualdeMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueux1.cso.uiuc.edu