Editor for this issue: Annemarie Valdez <avaldez
emunix.emich.edu>
Regarding Leo A. Connolly's remark that more than 60+ languages have a writing system: The new book by Barry Sanders, *A is for ox* (an excellent title) claims without a reference that the United Nations states that there are exactly 78 literary languages in the world. (a) Presumably the source would be UNESCO? Has anyone seen this claim before? Do you remember where? (b) Define "literary language"! Presumably it's what LAC had in mind with "60+"; but the United Bible Societies puts out a freqntly updated list of all the languages with at least one book of the Bible translated, and I think they're close to 2000 languages now; so in the literal sense, at least that many languages "have a writing system". Possibly a handful more could be added if there are any languages which Muslim or Buddhist missionaries have recorded and Christian ones haven't.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Leo Connoly writes: I agree completely about the need to do basic linguistics. Who gives a hoot what the latest jargon for "subject" is and what node of a speculative tree it is attached to? There are real languages out there, and they're worth knowing about and recording i.e. writing. And I further agree that writing them will encourage minority language speakers to demand their rights, although we may well disagree as to what these are exactly. ... And finally, having a writing system does not guarantee nirvana. Sometimes having a writing system is a bad thing. Cyrillic and Roman do not happily coexist in the former Yugoslavia. Might the war be less bloody if they didn't have one alphabet too many to fight about? Leo A. Connolly Foreign Languages & Literatures connollyMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuemsuvx1.memphis.edu University of Memphis ============================= Perhaps this is the time to open a new discussion which strikes at the root of our profession. What are the long-term consequences of "reducing" a language to writing? What changes in the language-culture dynamic when literacy is introduced? Is the professional imperative to put all languages into writing value-free? If, as seems evident, Plato's warnings were right that literacy would result in our losing our memories (compare anything you can do in memorizing to those who memorize and can recite the entire Quran -- even when they don't *understand* a single word of Arabic and are just doing it rote, syllable by syllable), is it fair to ask what the consequences to a culture are in losing their oral memories when literacy gains prestige? Is our profession value-free? Or are we simply following blindly some crypto-Indo-European inner imperative? In my own Intro to Language courses, an integral part of the course is recording a random 5-minute slice of reality and transcribing it -- the first time just the best you can, the second time through the filter of Tannen's _That's Not What I Meant_, and the third time just a 10-second slice phonetically. Each time they finish a particular assignment, they think they've discovered EVERYTHING that's going on in that slice of reality, and each succeeding assignment opens new worlds. By the time they are through (including a morphological and syntactic pass in the best of all possible worlds with lowest student-to-teacher ratios, as sometimes in grad instead of undergrad enrollments), they know in their gut, experientially, in a way that no mere words will ever dissuade, that written English is an entirely different language than spoken English, as evidenced by their 5-minute random slice of reality. That explanation was for a reason. What exactly are the pros and cons, in the most concise terms, around committing spoken language to writing? I know from committing the Cheyenne language to a phonetic-like writing system in the '70s that the very FIRST issue that comes up is "standards": whose dialect, of the four communities that live within 20 miles of each other, will we write it in? The speakers in Community B says black as "mo?OhtavO" but speakers in Community L say it as "mo?kOhtavO", as do speakers in Community A. So how do we decide? By number of speakers? By which community seems to speak the "older" way, or the more modern way? Or, as seems most expedient at times, do we simply use the dialect of the community that contains (historically accidentally) the Tribal Center and arbitrarily designate it the "prestige dialect" worthy of bestowing the writing system on? I didn't mean to stretch it out this long, but these are the questions that weigh heavily on me because of my experience, and I've never found the proper forum for discussing them.