Editor for this issue: Ann Dizdar <dizdar
tam2000.tamu.edu>
Some weeks ago I posted a query on the question of whether a bilingual could be said to have two I-languages. The following people replied: Richard Coates Susanne Dopke Susan Ervin-Tripp Anthea Fraser Gupta Patrick Griffiths Nancy Hildebrandt Bill King Tove Klausen Chao-Chih Liao Juergen M. Meisel Madeline Maxwell Michael Newman Harold Ormsby Pius ten Hacken Many thanks to all of you. I hope this summary does justice to your helpful efforts. I am still in discussion with one respondent, but anyone who was waiting for a summary has surely waited long enough. First of all, I apologise to those who had trouble getting through and can only offer extra thanks to those who persevered. My address seems to have been changed, without my knowledge, approximately on the day I sent the query. Any further correspondence should be addressed to "i.crookstonMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuelmu.ac.uk". I must not of course quote the original query in full, but the heart of it was the following: "If you took an adult bilingual, and attempted to analyse their grammar, using their utterances and acceptability intuitions, on the assumption that there was one grammar underlying all their output, where would that assumption break down?" I thought this was a simple question to which a suitably qualified expert would be able to give a snap answer. I thought I was saying something like: "Give me an example of a sentence which you have reason to think is ill-formed for a bilingual such as a British Panjabi, whose ill-formedness cannot be accounted for on the assumption of a single I-language". Or: "give me the crucial counterevidence which is forcing researchers away from the simple hypothesis". I got two snap answers. One respondent said "the best way to understand bilinguals is to become one". This is very precisely true, since if I had direct access to a bilingual's native speaker intuitions I would soon be able to find my answer. However as the question needs to be answered separately for simultaneous bilinguals and other kinds the advice arrives a little late. And Suzanne Dopke said "the operation of the two languages of a bilingual in the brain is far from settled", which will certainly find its way into my lectures. Juergen Meisel and Anthea Gupta both said that, to use my wording above, a piece of crucial counterevidence is the fact that bilinguals can avoid language mixing for monolingual listeners. This is what students have said when I have tried to suggest that a bilingual is not necessarily two monolinguals bolted together. But we can all suppress parts of our linguistic repertoire to accommodate a listener (eg, suppressing bookish vocabulary to talk to students): this seems to me to be merely a difference of degree between the monolingual and the bilingual. Several of the replies suggested further reading, often Romaine's _Bilingualism_. The first edition of this does not tell me precisely the answer to my query, but I will do my best to consult the second, and follow up at least some of the other suggestions. One of the further reading suggestions was Poplack's work from the 80's. My acquaintance with this has led me to put it into the same category as the others: it seems to start from the assumption of what we would now call two I-languages, rather than first giving the crucial counterevidence to the simpler hypothesis. Many replies broadened the question in one way or another. Several reminded me that a similar question arises with second-language-learners; another that the "forgetting" of one language by a bilingual is a further dimension to the issue; one that the differential loss of languages in brain damage is another form of evidence. In the last case, I have always understood that research is severely constricted by the impossibility of accurately establishing pre-morbid language use patterns. Suzanne Dopke startled me by averring that Meisel's research "strengthens the UG position" in general. It is surely somewhat more plausible a priori to say that we have a genetically-specified UG which will develop into a single I-language regardless of the input; rather than, as Meisel says, that there is a genetically-specified UG which can be duplicated in special environmental conditions. Isn't it? We have a genetically-specified liver, and there are surely no known environmental conditions which will cause it to be duplicated. So I hope those who tried to help will forgive me when I say I feel barely any forrarder for their much-appreciated efforts. No expert seems to be able to give me the answer to what I thought was a simple question. I am certainly open to continued discussion: perhaps now is the time to try to explain to an inexpert polytechnic lecturer _why_ the question cannot be answered? Thanks again Ian Crookston