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I have found the topic of "linguistic human rights violations" particularly interesting, but I am a little confused as to what constitutes such a violation. Marc Picard writes, "Personally, I would hope that Latvians would take any measures they deem necessary to get everybody in their country to speak their language." If someone were to issue such a statement about the language situation in the United States (particularly with regards to native speakers of Spanish who are residents/citizens of the US), I am sure that some group would throw up its arms in protest of the oppression of this segment of the population. Is this what is meant by a "linguistic human rights violation"? Is it something more severe? Or are we looking at other countries and applying different standards than those which we apply in the United States? Mark Mitton Carleton College Northfield, MN 55057 mittonmMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuecarleton.edu
The intensity of recent postings on language policy left me a little worried. Do these people (I won't mention names) also support an English-only policy for the US? I certainly hope not. My home language is Spanish, and I *would* consider it a violation of my linguistic human rights to be forced to use English in situations where doing so is required by nothing more than the law. Micheal W. Palmer Mellon Research Fellow Department of Linguistics University of North Carolina at Chapel HillMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
What about giving Martin the benefit of the doubt and assume that "Russian-speaking Estonians" is a slip of the keyboard for "Russian-speaking Latvians"? Hartmut HaberlandMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue