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Hi Could anyone recommend a good fairly uncomplicated book on South Slavic phonology and/or morphology? I'd appreciate it much. Thanks, Donald P. Hussey Boston College HUSSEYDMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueBCVMS.BC.EDU
I am looking for a public corpus of about 200,000 words containing current written texts of various genres. I need this for text analysis in an Introduction to Linguistics class I will be teaching this summer. Could anyone help me? I apologize for burdening the readers with this request. I have a feeling this topic was dealt with on this list before at a time it did not interest me. I would like a corpus that would be transferable via Internet and one that my students and I could quote from freely in our research. Thanks. Ali ============================================================================== Ali-Asghar Aghbar, Dept. of English, Indiana U. of PA, Indiana, PA 15705 Bitnet: aaghbarMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueiup Internet: aaghbar
grove.iup.edu Phone: 412-357 2262
Dear subscribers, Recently I came across an example of BETTER used without HAD in the following construction: SHE BETTER STOP. As it was an American publication, I assumed that the use of HAD in such expressions had completely disappeared, in written as well as spoken US English. I would not have been surprised to find that it had disappeared from spoken usage, since there are obvious phonological reasons, but the loss of it in writing indicated to me that the use of BETTER alone was quite standardised. This poses a question for me, and I was wondering if anyone out there has a suggestion. If it is now standardised, and there is no longer a HAD, why doesn't the former bare infinitive STOP now become finite and take 3ps inflection (? SHE BETTER STOPS)? Is this because it now has assumed a subjunctive-like quality? Can it then be associated with the expression: IT IS BETTER THAT SHE STOP? If so, can another adjective be substituted for BETTER here, e.g. IT IS GOOD THAT SHE STOP) ??SHE GOOD STOP? How has this been reanalysed, and what are the implications? (Susan Dopke informs me that some grammarians have interpreted BETTER in these contexts as an auxiliary, and if that is the case, can we use SUB-AUX inversion to make it a question? (?BETTER SHE STOP?) Is this now acceptable too? Please send your suggestions if this bothers you. Debbie ZiegelerMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue