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I believe that at one time all nouns were capped in English as they still are in german. You may find something of interest in my paper on the capping of ethnic names in the just published CENTENNIAL USAGE STUDIES, PADS. As i recall, Nunberg tries to map out a descriptive theory of punctuation and says little if anything about caps (Almost no one says anything about them but there are a few works reference in th bibliography to my article. Bob WachalMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Just a quick one before everyone else gets in. Two Germanic languages, at least, Dutch and Standard German, use a captalised pronoun form for the polite second- person use: 'U' in Dutch, 'Sie' in German. I guess the explanation for this is respect, just as pronominal references to the deity are capitalised by many. In modern Netherlands Dutch, this is disappearing, and 'u' is used, whereas in Belgian Dutch (Flemish), I have the impression it's retained much more (as is the use of 'U' itself - in Netherlands Dutch, I believe that 'u' is beginning to be restricted to formal, rather than merely polite, usage, whereas in Belgium, people use 'U' with each other for much longer - I even heard my children calling their friends, aged around 10, 'U', and they're not notably polite). The explanation for capitalised 'I' in English can't be respect - I suspect it's merely typographical, having to do with the fact that lower-case 'i' is so small. Paul WerthMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
The recent query and summary by Larry Trask on German affricates makes me think of the fact that, unless I am mistaken, it is perfectly easy to HEAR the difference between one- and two-segment stop-fricative sequences at least in some cases. Polish has a contrast of this sort at least in initial position, where the words spelled _trzy_ and _czy_ differ only in that the former has a cluster, the second an affricate. Also, if you compare the English way of saying _ts_ with the German way of saying _z_ (or the Polish or the Yiddish, etc.), there is an audible difference. Most English speakers' rendition of _matzah_ (or _matzoh_) for example sounds quite different from the Yiddish or Polish, but (and this is also very suggestive) I have found a few Am. Engl. speakers (not all of them Jewish, by the way) who have the affricate, i.e., one-segment /ts/ in this and perhaps some other Yiddish borrowings but the two segment /t/+/s/ otherwise, so that these speakers do not rhyme _matzah_ and _lots o(f)_, whereas most speakers do. Finally, I think some speakers have a one-segment /tS/ in hit ya, but a two-segment /t/ + /S/ in hits ya, although most speakers I have asked refuse to admit anything but the nonpalatalized, non-affricated pronunciation in the second case. Alexis MRMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue