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As to the recent postings on German affricates I wonder what the criteria are in order to posit a one- or two-segment solution. So far rather strange (to my mind) suggestions have been made: "you can hear it", "the affricate does not occur word-initially". Can some phonteists inform us, what are the usual criteria in their science? (Since I will not have the time to read through the relevant literature, but still find this an interesting question, the more since German is my native language). I always thought that one criterion should be the possibility of separate release of the plosive and fricative parts, as has been illustrated by David Powers for morphologically complex words (I am repeating his examples, inserting a morpheme boundary "-"): ent-scheiden fort-schritte wirt-schaft By the way, in my pronounciation putting a syllable boundary between the t and S of _entscheiden_ sounds very, very weird, in fact I syllabify en$tS..... Note that this verb is not very transparent to native speakers of German. In the more clearly separable cases of Wirt-schaft and fort-schritte, a syllable boundary between the 2 morphemes indicates to my mind something like a spelling pronounciation, not occurring naturally. (Naturally I would put the syllable boundary within the affricate). As to German /ts/ , I think it is even harder to find contexts of separate release what may be due to spelling norms: The spelling pronounciation of e.g. _Katze_ would be kat-tse as far as I can see. As a last remark, tS can occur quite frequently word-initially in colloquial German (not only in tschu"ss), by way of syllable apocope as _Entschuldigung_ becoming _Tschuldigung_ (cf. en-tscheiden above). Ursula Doleschal Institut f. Slawische Sprachen Wirtschaftsuniv. Wien Augasse 9, 1090 Wien Tel.: ++43-1-31336 4115 Fax: ++43-1-31336 744Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Richard Desrochers and David Powers seem to me to miss the point about the distinction between one-segment affricates and two segment sequences of stop+fricative. Distributiuonal and etymological arguments are irrelevant if the distinction is audible (whether there is a contrast in the language in question or not). Now, let us agree to write [ts] and [tS] for single segments and [t-s] and [t-S] for sequences. Then, French has [tS] in foreign words like Tchekoff, German has [ts] written z and [tS] written tsch (which does occur initally in tschuess), Polish has a contrast of [t-S] and [tS] initially and medially (in final position, I think it is neutralized, except in hypercorrect pronunciation), some English speakers seem to have [tS] in hit'ya but [t-S] in hits'ya, otherwise English has [tS] but [t-s] (compare hitch vs. hits), except that some Am. English speakers very clearly have [ts] in some foreign, notably Yiddish, borrowings. I think this is like the velar nasal (let's write it [N]) vs. [Ng]. Whether some language or dialect has one or the other or both are things once can hear, WHATEVER the etymology or distribution. It seems to me that you can also hear the distinction between a long vowels and two vowels, so that Hopi has what sounds to me like two vowels whereas Czech has long vowels. Again, the phonetic facts have little if any connection with distribution or etymology. Alexis MRMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue