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Can anyone point me to any work on the history of the IPA vs. the North American standards? I'm curious about how the differences arose. I'm particularly interested in why the IPA uses made-up characters for palatoalveolars, rather than the hacek series that originated in Slavic languages & that we North Americans prefer. The IPA rarely uses new characters when there are existing symbols used in some Western European language or Greek. So why the exception here? When was the choice between the two alternatives made, & what sorts of arguments went into the decision? Also, I can't find my copy of the 1970's revision of the IPA at the moment, but, as I recall, the hacek series was listed as an acceptable substitute for the preferred symbols for the palatoalveolars. But that acceptable status was removed in the 1989 revision of the IPA. Again, what kind of arguments went into the decision to make this change? Post replies to me. I will summarize for LINGUIST. ---Joe Stemberger University of MinnesotaMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Dear Linguist List: Could you please post the following message? I am looking for an Ainu language consultant (not necessarily a native speaker) with whom I can communicate by e-mail and/or some written grammars about this language. I'd appreciate any recommendations. Thank you, Lizanne Kaiser lkaiserMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueminerva.cis.yale.edu
This is a follow up to my previous query. I am seeking tools for content analysis of text. If anyone has suggestions, or can help me determine if semantic and pragmatic analysis is the proper way to describe an exploration of the underlying meaning as well as structure of text, I shall be appreciative. Hillel R. Alpert halpertMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuefas.harvard.edu
Could anybody tell me whether there are any other languages apart from English which allow for VP-Ellipsis constructions. I would also like to know whether---if there are any---the VP ellipsis constructions are comparable to the English VP ellipses as with - auxilliaries "do" and "be" as in (1) Sue went to see the doctor, and Ann did, too. (2) Sue was seriously sick, and Ann was, too. - auxilliary "have" as in (3) Sue tried the treatment after Ann had. - modals "can, could, may, might, shall, should, will, would, must" (4) Though Sue does not come to the party, Ann might. - verbs or verb complexes with a plain "to" complement without the infinitive as in (5) Sue rang Ann because she asked/wanted her to. (6) Sue invited Ann since noone else dared/used to. A test case is whether there is the possibility for so-called Antecedent Contained Deletion/Anaphora: (7) Sue invited everyone Ann did. (8) Sue invited everyone Ann asked her to. ... and a diachronological question: does anyone know since when VP ellipsis is possible in English? I would also be grateful for hints to literature dealing with these questions. Please post to me directly, I will supply a summary for The Linguist List. Thanks a lot in advance, Franz Beil franzMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueims.uni-stuttgart.de