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Meillet (1912) claims the Latin habere was grammaticalized in French as the perfect avoir:(a) Did French have a perfect before avoir?and if so, (b) How was it encoded? Many thanks, jlinnellMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuemail.sas.upenn.edu
Dear List Members, Would anyone know of the prospects for jobs in the linguistic field for someone who has some knowledge/training with no degree, especially outside of second-language teaching and speech pathology? And, any advice on how to look for or find this kind of work would be greatly appreciated. Also, would anyone be able to give or suggest a comprehensive breakdown of the skills required to do linguistic work? Please respond to me directly. Thank you in advance, KevinMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
My wife is currently struggling through generative syntax here at Georgetown. She came home the other night and started analyzing some small clauses (ie. "I consider [him a friend.]" It seems to me that you could merely treat these phrases in terms of a relatively closed class of verbs (I don't know what they all are, but there can't be more than a handful.) If you state a rule VP) V NP (AP/NP) where the second element is optional and then label "consider" and like verbs in the lexicon as three-argument verbs where the external argument is an agent assigning a copula relation between the two internal arguments, this should work, shouldn't it? Granted, I'm no syntactician, but it seems logical to me. David Harris, Arabic Department, Georgetown University e-mail: harrisdMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueguvax.georgetown.edu phone: 202/687-5744 http://www.georgetown.edu/grad/catalogue/arabic.html * % [ *) ^ { * ] & ~ : } * [ % ( $ ] * "Seit den Hexen nichts mehr geschieht, sind sie harmlos." Elias Canetti * % [ *) ^ { * ] & ~ : } * [ % ( $ ] )
I'm searching for a plausible articulatory phonetic reason why the diphthongization of /a:/ to /ao/ would be blocked by a following palatal consonant like /y/ or /n~/ and nothing else. In other words, the change takes place before bilabials, labio-dentals, dentals, postalveolars and velars but not before palatals. Any ideas? Marc PicardMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue