Editor for this issue: <>
Please permit me a brief addendum to the had/'d discussion. First of all, where I grew up (Cam- bridge, MA, 50s & 60s) folks regularly (exclusively?) said "X better V", with no form of "had/'d" audible, as far as I can tell. I assume that's the reason why it wasn't until I was an adult that I realized that there must have been an auxliary there at one time (and apparently still is for many speakers). It did strike me as a bit strange that the negative was "You better not do that", which seemed at odds with what otherwise seemed to hold for negation (this was before I turned linguist!). The point was really drilled home when I several times heard non-native speakers (Germans) come up with what was for me totally impossible, namely "You better don't do that"! It was around then that I figured there was more to it than met the eye/ear ... The long & short of it is that at least for some speakers (like me) the "had/'d" wasn't there. In- stead the construction had some rather peculiar properties (explicable, no doubt, if you say that underlyingly ...). Just like the [r] which I've since learned to insert in coda-final position (& which led me once to say "cumquarts" on the basis of the analogy [kwO:t] of milk) [kwart] cum[kwO:t]) cum[kwart]!), the auxiliary here seems to have been "reinstated", through contact with other speakers, normative pressure, etc. I wonder if others had similar experiences with this construction; or did everyone but me realize from the "git-go" what the historically correct analysis was? Hmmm. Thanks for indulging me. tom shannonMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue