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Concerning John Cowan's query about Tai belonging to Sino-Tibetan: First off, it is not quite true that nobody believes it now; as far as I know it is still the official view in China that Tai (as part of Zhuang-Dong or Kadai) as well as Miao-Yao belong in Sino-Tibetan. The private views of Chinese linguists are another matter: many of them are skeptical of Tai's affiliation with S-T. By the way, I use 'Kadai' to mean the larger family including Tai as well as Kam-Sui, Hlai (Li), Gelao and a number of others; some prefer 'Tai-Kadai' for this group. Why did views change? Largely, I think, it was a matter of recognizing that typological features like tone and monosyllabicity were less resistant to diffusion than had been thought; in particular, they are less resistant to replacement than is core vocabulary. The shift in views about the affiliation of Vietnamese shows this in miniature: Vietnamese is typologically very close to Chinese, Tai and Miao-Yao, and it has large numbers of lexical items with obvious Chinese affiliations, but its lexicon also includes many items, and among them many core items, that have good phonological correspondences to Mon-Khmer. The situation with Tai and Miao-Yao is similar, except that there is no obvious competing genetic linkage to make once you discard Chinese. You are left with many core vocabulary items that are unrelatable to Chinese. Much of the credit for shifting opinion about the affiliation of Tai should probably go to Paul Benedict, since he made more or less the above arguments as part of his proposal for hooking Tai up with Austronesian, in the first version of Austro-Tai. It is, I think, instructive to notice what happened: hardly anybody went along with Austro-Tai, but it quickly became difficult to find anybody explicitly advocating the old Sino-Tibetan affiliation. I would not like to say that Benedict had *disproved* the ST-Tai relation; I would prefer to say that he made a persuasive argument that a hypothesis of ST-Tai affiliation was not a useful or promising one. I'm of the camp that thinks that you can't disprove a genetic relation in linguistics. You *can* show that a given claim for a given genetic relation is unconvincing, but that is not the same thing as showing that the claimed relation is invalid. And I can't resist putting in my 2 cents on the matter of writing grammars of proto-languages. A bit of the disagreement between Karl Teeter and Alexis Manaster-Ramer seems due to misunderstanding: Alexis has mostly been using 'grammar' to mean 'morphology, especially inflectional morphology like in Indo-European', while Karl seems rather to use 'grammar' in the larger, generative sense, as (a description of) the sum total of a speaker's linguistic knowledge. In the latter sense, grammar of course includes phonology, so presumably when we describe the phonology of a proto-language we are going some distance towards meeting Karl's demand for a grammar of that proto-language. The question is how much farther we can expect to go. When I contemplate writing the grammar of proto-Kadai, I am sure it would include plenty of phonology, and a fair amount on derivational morphology and compounding (which in many of these languages are practically the same thing). But no inflectional morphology, and I must confess I have trouble conceiving of describing the proto-syntax, except by characterising it as SVO since all the modern languages are of that type. I'm not sure what sort of evidence I could use do decide whether classifiers existed as a distinct grammatical category in the proto-language, or which aspects were marked by verbs and which by particles, or any number of other things that would take up many pages in a grammar of any of the modern languages. It may well turn out that many useful facts about the proto-syntax can be inferred, including even some of those I just listed, but I really doubt we'll ever find an analog to the est/sunt:ist/sind pattern. ) ) Well, what is known about how various hypotheses of relationship were ) rejected in the past? At one time, it was believed that Tai was part of ) Sino-Tibetan; nobody believes this now. On what basis did those learned ) in the art shift their paradigms (to mix a few metaphors)? ) ) I know very little about either language family, but the resemblances between ) them (tones, monosyllabicity, the Great Tone Split) are seductive. I think ) it would be instructive to hear, from someone who knows the history, just ) how these faux amis came to be disregarded. ) ) John Cowan sharing account (lojbabMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueaccess.digex.net) for now ) e'osai ko sarji la lojban. ) ) -------------------------------------------------------------------------- ) LINGUIST List: Vol-5-1482. )
In the discussion of Greenberg's "mass comparison", the possiblity is raised (e.g. in Benjy Wald's interesting posting on the African classification) that errors may be swamped by the large number of forms. Perhaps so, in some cases, but I think that it is important to note that in some cases at least Greenberg's claims are based on minute numbers of equations. For example, according to my count of forms in LIA, his inclusion of Waicuri in Hokan and thence Amerind is based on a total of SIX (6) forms, his inclusion of Maratino in the same groups on a total of THREE (3) forms. Where I come from this isn't what we call an overwhelming mass of data. Bill Poser Bill Poser, First Nations Studies, University of Northern British Columbia, 3333 University Way, Prince George, British Columbia, V2N 4Z9, Canada 604-960-6692Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Re: Jacques Guy's reply to something I said much earlier: Do we really have to throw about words like 'false'. I may have been wrong when I said that I knew of no published examples of languages that had clearly lost significantly more than the magic figure of 86% of the Swadesh 100-word list per millennium, and I did ask for any counterexamples. The Eastern Greenlandic example cited by Jacques based on Bergsland and Vogt's 1962 paper turns out to be a case where, as Swadesh pointed out in his response, and as I think the authors admitted, it is possible that the rate was not really higher after all. Jacques also referred to some other language, starting with M, but never made it clear whether he was talking about the vocabulary at large or about the 100-word list, nor did he cite any references. If this example is documented and holds up, I will have been wrong, but false seems a bit harsh. I should add that I personally am not a believer in glottochronology and that today most of those who are apparently no longer believe in the constant rate of loss. My point was rather that it was the people who keep talking about a supposed limit on how far back the comparative method can go who are either explicitly (as in the case of Bender) or implicitly assuming something like a constant rate of loss. However--and this is important--what Bergsland and Vogt did demonstrate quite clearly in 1962 is that there are, even if not often, examples of languages which have lost words from the 100-word list much slower than at 14% per millennium. Icelandic in particular shows almost no loss (something like maybe 2%) over the last millennium. Talone means that the calculations about how vocabulary is lost and so there is supposedly nothing to cmpare after x thousnads of years are irrelevant to anything in the real world. Even if there are languages which have lost vocabulary faster, in cases where we know nothing and are just starting (eg. Amerind or Nostratic), we have no way of knowing what the rate might have been. It could have been fast or slow. Hence, no a priori argument can be made that the comparative method cannot reach beyond x millennia and therefore there is no basis for telling people that theoreis like Amerind or Nostratic should be dismissed a priori. Whether such theories are right or wrong can only be determined by examining the data, not by playing games with mathematics. (This is getting awfully long. I will therefore defer to another occasion a discussion of what ELSE is wrong with these mathematical arguments, and why, pace Jacques, n-ary comparison is better at avoiding chance resemblences than binary IF it is done right). Alexis MRMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Since the discussion has been going on for a while, and lots of issues have been explored, it occurred to me (if it not too presumptous) to try to summarize some of the progress that I think we have made and then launch a new set of questions: Thus, I think that we have established (a) that language relationships can be established in the absence of morphology (although it is much easier to do it if there is morphology and it cooperates), (b) that language relationships can be established before a complete comparative grammar of the resulting proto-language is written (although the more grammar one can point to the more compelling the case for the relationship in question), (c) that there is such a thing as comparative syntax (although there is not much of it, at least as yet, and that it is a lot easier to do syntactic reconstruction with the help of morphology), (d) that there is no such thing as a constant rate at which languages lose "basic" vocabulary (in particular the words in the Swadesh list) and that consequently (e) any argument based on a constant rate of basic voc. loss which purports to show that after x millennia any related languages will no longer have any shared vocabulary left is not going to work, at least not in general, (f) that there is apparently no OTHER argument at all for the claim in (e) to the effect that the comparative method ceases to identify related languages after 5-10 millennia (as has widely been claimed). Am I right that this much is pretty much agreed to? If so, I would like to throw out the following for further discussion: Some biologists who are concerned with the rise of complexity (e.g. multicellularity) argue that since life started out with single cells and since you cannot get any simpler than that, that means that the rise of complexity could simply be due to chance. Namely, since you cannot get any simpler, the only way to move is towards more complex, and so once in a while that's what you will get. The reason I mention this is because the question when we deal with a controversial theory in comparative linguistics, like Nostratic, is whether there is any chance that evidence supporting such a theory will be found. Now, it seems to me that ALL the arguments against such theories (except in the case of Altaic) have involved people either talking about a priori methodological points or else looking at just one of the language groups which such theories seek to unite. So, there have been people criticizing some of the Indo-European implications of Nostratic, for example, but the point is that that way you cannot in principle ever discover any supporting evidence, even if it exists. Instead, if such evidence is to be found one MUST be willing to suspend disbelief to the extent of looking at two or more of the language groups claimed to be related. For the only kind of evidence that is supporting would have to come from such comparisons. Now, I happen to have found several sets of words with appropriate semantics which fit the sound laws proposed for Nostratic by Illich-Svitych by looking, for example, at IE, Uralic, and Altaic materials. Naturally, this makes me more and more positively inclined towards the theory. I have also found (and been publishing) all kinds of problems witht the theory, but my point here is that only by looking at sets of language families can we hope to discover the positive instances if they exist. This is why I keep saying that we need discussion of substantive factual issues rather than methodological ones (although the latter are fun, too). Alexis MRMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue