Editor for this issue: <>
Benji Wald suggests that "the necessary condition for the development of interrogative/relative formal identity is simply the existence of formal identity between the interrogative and the corresponding indefinite non-specific pronoun". I don't think that's correct. Christian Lehmann has dealt with these questions in his monumental "Der Relativsatz" (Tuebingen, Narr, 1984), which was unfortunately written in German but is an absolute must for anyone who is interested in relative clauses. He notes (p. 325) that there is a closer relationhip between relative pronouns and interrogative pronouns than between relatives and indefinites. Thus, it seems that relative pronouns are based on interroagatives rather than on indefinites where these differ. It is true that in very many languages, indefinite pronouns are based on interrogative pronouns (to be precise, in 55 of the 100 languages of a balanced world-wide sample, see my forthcoming book "Indefinite pronouns", Oxford University Press). But it is only in a minority of these that indefinites and interrogatives are *identical*. The situation in English (some-where, some-how, etc.) is actually quite typical: The base is an interrogative pronoun, the indefinite is formed by adding something to it. Relative pronouns are also sometimes formed by adding some element to the interrogative pronoun (e.g. Latin qui-cumque, Bulgarian kakvo-to, Georgian vin-c). Interestingly, when indefinites share the same root with interrogatives and relatives, they also sometimes contain this element (e.g. Bulgarian kakvo-to i da e 'anyone'), so indefinites may also be derived from relatives. Thus, in addition to Wald's path "interrog = indef) rel" (a possibility that I do not deny), more commonly we find "interrog) indef, interrog > rel" (independent developments) and "interrog) rel > indef". Again I refer to my forthcoming book for detailed documentation. Martin Haspelmath (Free University of Berlin)Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Recently on the list, David Bellusci wrote: >An Irish friend of mine visiting Cape Town commented: >"There's not a Soul on the beach." It was the first time I heard >any such expression in English, but then he came from a >Catholic culture. This expression "not a soul" is, of course, rather common in the United States as well. I cannot agree with Mr. Bellusci's assertion that English in general has been effectively purged of Christian expressions. In fact, I never realized how full of religious-derived expressions it really was until I began translating from Czech. Czech is the language of a relatively secular people (even before communism there was a certain historically derived wariness of religious authority, as evidenced in my own grandfather, who emigrated before WW I), but it is nonetheless shot full of religious expressions, almost every one of which seems to be the exact equivalent of some common religious expression in English. Examples: buhvi "God knows" "God only knows" buhvico "God knows what" proboha "for God's sake" pozdrav panbuh (after sneezing) "God bless you" (often as not replaced in the U.S. by German "Gesundheit") bohudik "Thank God" "Thank Heaven" (These English expressions are only lately being replaced in the United States by a new use of the word "thankfully", as in, "Thankfully, nothing bad happened," instead of, "Thank God nothing bad happened." Before 1991 I had heard this "thankfully" only twice in my whole life. Upon returning home in late 1994 I was hearing it everywhere. I'll let others speculate on the reasons.) jezismaria! (lit. "Jesus Mary") appoximately equivalent to "Oh my God!" or "Jesus Christ!" chran buh "God forbid" da-li buh "God willing" The list could go on. When you hear even non-religious Americans using further expressions like, "I swear to God" [swrdagad] (or "as God is my witness" or "it's the God's truth") and "Jesus Christ!" along with its still more emphatic equivalent "Jesus K. Reist!" and its contraction "Jeez!" (I do not accept the common claim that this is derived from "Gee whiz".) you can see that at least American English is far from being purged of religiously based expressions. Then there are all the "holy" interjections, like "holy cow!", "holy shit!" (ESL teachers, translate these expressions for your students, and watch the hilarity.) There are still people who say, "Jumpin' Judas!" or "Judas priest!" or "Jumpin' Gee-hosophat!" And "act of God" for an unpreventable disaster is still an official term in the U.S. There must have been some Catholic influence in all this, but the conspicuous absence of references to the Virgin Mary tells me that Protestantism played a role. Anyway, the religious saturation of English is much greater than many people assume. James KirchnerMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue