Editor for this issue: Ann Dizdar <dizdar
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A while ago I posted the following question on Linguist List: I received 28 answers and am very glad about the interest. Thanks a lot to all who took time to write! My thanks go to: Jorge Baptista jbaptisMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuemozart.si.ualg.pt Karen S. Chung karchung
ccms.ntu.edu.tw Malin Ericson malin
ling.su.se JOSEPH F. FOSTER Joseph.Foster
UC.Edu Sandra Golstein sandra
tovna.co.il Mark H.-M. Hansheng mhansell
carleton.edu James Kirchner JPKIRCHNER
aol.com Roger Lass ROGER
beattie.uct.ac.za Wenchao Li wcli
vax.ox.ac.uk Larry Mitchell j-mitchell
tamu.edu Bente H. Moxness benmox
alfa.itea.unit.no Caoimhin P. ODonnaile caoimhin
smo.uhi.ac.uk Charles Rowe rowe
email.unc.edu GAVIN O SHEA GOSHEA
acadamh.ucd.ie Laura C. Smith lcsmith
acs.ucalgary.ca John Verhaar 101457.3114
CompuServe.COM Guido Vanden Wyngaerd Guido=Vanden=Wyngaerd%OWP%UFSAL
ufsal3.kubrussel.ac.be As a result I will show in a short form which is the commonest form of substitutions of voiceless and voiced in all languages I was told of: Afrikaans: f and v Chinese from Hong Kong: f and n Chinese from Malaysia/Singapore: t and d Chinese from Taiwan: s and l Czech: t and d, more rarely f and v Dutch: t and d French: in France s and z, in Canada t and d (this interesting fact seems very certain since a lot of people told me) German: s and z in Austria perhaps t and d Hebrew: s and d Icelandic: no substitution since th-sounds exist in Icelandic Norwegian: t and d Polish: t and d Portuguese: s and d Russian: t and d Spanish: t and d, although a voiceless th-sound (c, z) exists at least in many ialects! Swedish: s and d respectively. The assymetry is due to the fact Swedish has no /z/. Yiddish: t (no information for voiced th) Several people also told me of special reflexes of th in English dialects: f and v respectively in Cockney also in Southern or Black American English, but subject to restrictions t and d respectively in New York and parts of Ireland, these sounds seem not to be identical to etymological t and d I also heard that British children who not yet master the (voiceless) th-sound substitute it by f. Now some additional information I got: Laura Catharine Smith is preparing a paper on this topic which will appear in the Calgary Working Papers in Linguistics' next volume to appear in January of 1997. Not long ago, Wenchao Li asked about historical developments of th-spirants and posted a summary on Linguist List, titled "dental spirant summary", on Fri, 26 Jul 1996 17:03:19 +0100 Carsten Peust Seminar of Egyptology and Coptology Goettingen cpeust
gwdu20.gwdg.de or cpeust
gwdg.de
Due to a technical problem I had to send the first part of my summary on th-substitutions unfinished. So here is the rest: My question was as following: Dear list members, Most languages appear to lack a dental spirant as the english th is (I mean basically the voiceless variant here), so when speakers of such languages try to imitate such a spirant they are likely to replace it by something else. But by what? German natives generally tend to use /s/ instead when speaking English improperly, while it can be observed that in Russian, at least at an earlier period, /f/ was used, so Athenes, mythos etc. from Greek were taken over as Afina, mif etc. In Arabic, the classical th-sound developed into /t/ in the modern dialects but today the same sound is regularly substituted as /s/ in secondary loans from Classical Arabic. Ancient Egyptian obviously replaced the sound by /t/ (e.g. in the Persian name Mithras). I wonder whether the choice of t, s or f respectively can tell us something about the internal structure of the phonemic system of the receiving language. I would be glad if you 1) could give me more facts about th-substitution in various languages 2) know of a treatment of this question in the literature. I will post a summary on the list if I receive enough answers. Thank you, My thanks go to: Theriault Alain theriaalMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueERE.UMontreal.CA Osamu Fujimora osamu
hip.atr.co.jp Stephen G. Lambacher steeve
u-aizu.ac.jp Daniel Loehr loehrd
gusun.georgetown.edu Waruno Mahdi waruno
fritz-haber-institut.mpg.de France Mugler MUGLER_F
usp.ac.fj MARC PICARD PICARD
vax2.concordia.ca (and see part 1 of this summary) Substitutions in Fijian: Fijian has only a voiced dental spirant, written 'c', which is also used to substitute the English voiceless dental spirant Hindi: th (aspirated plosive) (no information on the voiced variant) Japanese: s (no information on the voiced variant) Old Church Slavonic: f (no information on the voiced variant). Through this language some cases like Feodor for Theodoros entered Russian but in modern Russian the normal substitutions are t and d Again I give all my thanks to the contributers and I hope the first part of my summary reached you all. If not so, please e-mail me, so I can send it to you. It seems very remarkable that - closely related languages can differ markedly in their practice of substitution, cf. French of France (s-z) and Canada (t-d), German (s-z), Dutch/Yiddish (t-d) and Afrikaans (f-v) or the Chinese data. - The substitutions are sometimes assymetrical, cf. e.g. Swedish and Hebrew, which seems very interesting but not always easy to explain. Let me add additional observations from Ancient Egyptian: There is quite a lot of Semitic loan words in Egyptian around 1200 or 1000 B.C. Here the voiceless dental spirant of Semitic is rendered regularly as /s/, the voiced by /t-/ or /d-/ in about equal distribution. /t-/ and /d-/ are palatal stops the exact difference between them being a matter of dispute (in my opinion aspirate - non-aspirate). The substitution of the voiced th seems very interesting; I would not exclude that it was an affricate in the source language. Let me add that Egyptian had no voiced /z/ and not even a voiced /d/ at this time. Although some Semitic languages confuse the th-sounds with /s/ and /z/ respectively, this was probably not true of the source languages of the loan words since Semitic s or z is usually rendered differently: by /sh/ (palatal fricative) and /d-/ (never /t-/!) respectively. It is well known that Semitic /z/ was originally an affricate. (I have used material from James E. Hoch, Semitic Words in Egyptian Texts of the New Kingdom, Princeton 1994) >From Ptolemaic times, however, we know that Persian names with /th/-fricative were substituted with /t/ (= aspirate t). This is also consistently true of Greek theta of which it is unknown for how long it remained a plosive and when it turned into a fricative as in modern Greek. So Egyptian changed its habits of th-substitution in less than 1000 years. (Well, I cannot tell whether the Persian names might have been intermediated to the scribes by some Semitic or other native speakers; we have to be very careful in such matters if extinct languages are concerned). Carsten Peust Seminar of Egyptology and Coptology Goettingen cpeust
gwdu20.gwdg.de or cpeust
gwdg.de