Editor for this issue: Ann Dizdar <dizdar
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Here's a datum from last night's (Fri 2 Aug 96) late-night Olympics coverage. In an athlete profile, a young American boxer, Antonio Tarver I think was his name, mentioned that at one point he "succame" to peer pressure and did drugs. This indicates that he knew "succumb" aural/orally: perhaps not on anyone's top-5,000 basic vocabulary list.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Vincent de Caen's examples remind me of a recent study by Nancy Budwig (1989): 'The linguistic marking of agentivity and control in child language' (Journal of Child Language 16: 263-284), in which she found that verbs expressing actions which were overtly agentive and required some degree of control on the part of the (1st person) subject used a subject pronoun 'my', while those which were not expressive of agentivity were marked with a subject pronoun 'I'. There seems to be strong semantic motivation on the part of the child to indicate a distinction showing the degree of subject involvement in the action expressed, but it is interesting to note that, while De Caen's examples show what one would expect - the use of the accusative case to mark intransitivity, e.g. 'her's sick', the reverse situation appears to be happening with Budwig's data, in which the nominative pronoun form is used to mark the subject of actions which involve less control on the part of the subject. Debra Ziegeler dziegeleMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuearts.cc.monash.edu.au
Karl Teeter writes, re sentences like "Mary and me left": > Interesting discussion on the preferred use of the "disjunctive" >forms of pronouns in English -- don't we all, in real life, say "me and >him"? But I find it hard to see what this might have to do with UG or any >modern loss of case. I seem to recall that Klima's Ph.D. thesis of >thirty or more years ago established that this usage was common in English >from the fourteenth century...Yours, kvt I didn't know about Klima's thesis, and am interested to hear that this pattern already existed in 14th century English. That makes the whole process much more ancient, which is interesting. But the link to UG remains. The argument goes like this. Suppose: a. UG is innate. b. UG includes a set of deep Cases linked to specific syntactic functions. c. UG includes a preference to link deep Cases to morphological cases where the latter are available. (Otherwise why call them `Cases'?) Now consider a child growing up in a community where sentences like the following are common: (1) I like her. (2) She likes me. Coordinate structures would be much less common, and therefore less influential. (Ted Harding's Oxfordshire would *not* be such a community! Lord knows what's going on there.) Given a-c, the child would *have* to assume that "I" vs "she" and "she" vs "her" were surface reflexes of deep Case. Therefore even if examples like (3) occurred, as speech errors or whatever, they would simply be ignored. (3) Her and I/me like him. Once "I" is recognised as the nominative of "me", and nominative is recognised as the realisation of Nominative, examples like (3) are blocked - as they are in all languages that have real morphological case. Therefore (my conclusion): I. English does not have case even in its pronouns. II. UG does not include abstract Case. I've spelt all this out more fully in JL 31:375-92 (1995). Richard Hudson Department of Phonetics and Linguistics, University College London, Gower Street, London WC1E 6BT work phone +171 419 3152; work fax +171 383 4108 email dickMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueling.ucl.ac.uk; web-site http://www.phon.ucl.ac.uk/home/dick/home.htm