Editor for this issue: Ljuba Veselinova <lveselin
emunix.emich.edu>
Thanks to all who responded to my query regarding languages with obligatory onsets and without distinctive length. The responses were many and interesting, and a specific thanks and summary follows. However, since many people who responded, were curious as to why I was asking, first let me explain: The original reason for my query is this: I am trying to develop the argument that in languages which both 1) require a default onset (onset filling) and 2) show compensatory lengthening type processes (coda filling), the two types of filling are independent of each other. This may seem obvious to some, but at least one influential line of research has tried to account for both types of filling in these languages in terms of a single directionality parameter (such as left-to-right or edge-in). It occurred to me that it might be helpful to my argument to note that some languages have neither type of filling and some have one or the other but not both. I knew (or rather thought I knew, see summary) some languages which have neither type. I also think I know some languages which show compensatory lengthening type processes without obligatory onsets. I didn't know any languages which had obligatory onsets, but no comp.length. processes. But I thought there must be some, hence! the query. I now have serious doubts about whether such a neat phomemic typology is in fact possible. I come back to this with a new query after the summary. ---THANKS and SUMMARY----- First Thanks to the following for their responses: Alice Faber, Haskins Labs; San Duanmnu, University of Michigan;Tapani Salminen, Department of Finno-Ugrian Studies, University of Helsinki;John Coleman, Oxford University Phonetics Laboratory; Mel Resnick, The University of Tulsa;Carsten Peust,Seminar of Egyptology and Coptology,Goettingen;Liz McKeown, SOAS, London;John Atkinson, Australia;Joseph DeChicchis, Hiroshima University; Waruno Mahdi, Berlin; and Wenchao, UK. Next, since the responses principally made aware that the issues involved were more problematic than I had imagined, I will organize the summary around the problems raised. PROBLEM 1-- default onsets-- phonetic? or phonemic? I have to admit that in trying to keep my query as simple as possible, what I asked for was not exactly what I was looking for. As Joseph DeChicchis notes in his response "it is difficult to know the extent to which your [query] is a question about phonetic allophony or (morphophonemic) typology."" I am interested in the phonemic typology aspect of the question. But certainly it would be a mistake to exclude apparent cases of phonetic allophony a priori. The phonetic and phonemic aspects of the issue are very difficult to disentangle. I was assuming that onset filling was a universal PHONEMIC parameter (=Languages either allow V initial syllables or they do not). However, it seems that languages (like English and Japanese) which I assumed allow V initial syllables, do in fact show a phonetic glottal stop onset before at least some of these syllables. Mel Resnick notes for example that "No English *utterance* can start with a phonetic vowel. If an *utterance* would otherwise start with a vowel, a glottal stop is preposed.E.g., Question: What grows on apple trees? Answer: [?aeplz]." And according to Joseph DeCicchis, "many (most?) Japanese dialects are also C initial: even words transcribed with initial A, I, U, E, O begin with a consonant (usually the glottal plosive, although the O words sometimes begin with a bilabial approximant)." So that instead of being due to a phonemic parameter, the appearance of default onsets in some cases may be due to a universal phonetic, i.e. physiological effect. Is there any valid distinction to be made between a phonetic and a phonemic default? The only answer I am able to think of to this question is that the phonemic default must otherwise be a valid phononeme of the language. This definition works for the Semitic languages which I am familiar with, where the default onsets (w or glottal stop in Arabic, y or glottal stop in Ge'ez) are otherwise phonemic, eg. Cl.Arabic /bi?run/ "well" vs. /barrun/ "dry land" This criterion would, I believe allow us to exclude languages like Japanese and English where the glottal stop is not phonemic. It also seems that the most promising languages to investigate in search of a phoNEMIC default, might be those where the default onset is something other than glottal stop, which seems to be the universal phonetic default. For example, In Tundra Nenets (according to Tapani Salminen,) "The default initial consonant is ng [= velar nasal]; it is regular in established loan-words, and appears through an automatic adaptation process even with the latest borrowings, like ngarmiya from Russian armija 'army'. There are certain (minor) complications; please check http://www.helsinki.fi/~tasalmin/sketch.html#phono" In approximately 70% of Australian languages (according to John Atkinson) single-consonant onsets are obligatory. He further notes "I could not find any loan words in Dyirbal which start with a vowel in the original language; however, forms like "Englishman"=>"yingiliman", "orange"=>"ngarrinji" are normal in other Australian languages which do not permit initial vowels. In Mandarin Chinese (Wenchao notes) "According to some models (e.g. Duanmu 1990), all syllables have an obligatory onset. The obligatory onset is described as a velar approximant, velar fricative, or glottal stop." PROBLEM 2-- defective orthography vs. real default A second problem, which the responses made me aware of, is that of how to distinguish between a true phonetic or phonemic default and a regular phoneme which simply isn't indicated in the orthography. By a default consonant I mean a consonant that can be interpreted as not part of the underlying structure of the word, but which appears on the surface, either because it is required by syllable structure constraints of the language (phonemic default) or because it is a physiological effect of speech production (phonetic default). To begin with, in Classical Arabic, it is possible to distinguish a default glottal stop from a(n underlying) phonemic glottal stop. (The distinction is, or at least can be, indicated in the traditional orthography.) For example in the word /?ismun/ "name" we can assume that the /?/ is a default, because it only appears if the word is not preceded by a prefix or word in close juncture which ends in a consonant. Thus when we attach the proclitic preposition /b-/ "in" or "by" we get/bismi/ "in the name of...". But the /?/ in /?amrun/ "command" is a phoneme which is part of the underlying representation of the word. It doesn't delete in the above environments, thus /bi?amri/ "by the command of..." It seems to me (though I am far from confident) that Carsten Peust's comments re glottal stop in German represent arguments in favor of a phonemic glottal stop in that language rather than for a default glottal stop. He writes: "Take German: There are many words which seem to start with a vowel but this vowel is usually preceded by a glottal stop, so you might say that there must be a consonantic onset. The glottal stop can also occur word internally (but this is always at a morpheme boundary). You could find minimal pairs such as /?ain/ "one" versus /kain/ "none" versus /bain/ "leg" etc., /eR?ailen/ "to come over someone (said from fate, death or sim.) vs. /eRtailen/ "to give/teach someone (a lesson, advice)" etc.etc. The common analysis is not to posit /?/ for the phonemic level." The glottal stop in Indonesian (Malay), which Waruno Mahdi was kind enough to analyze for me, also seems to be a regular phoneme which is defectively indicated in the writing system. Mahdi writes: In Indonesian (Malay) "Onset is never vocalic, but words spelled with an initial vowel (and thus listed in dictionaries) are pronounced with glottal onset, i.e. with initial glottal stop (the glottal stop phoneme also occurs internally in intervocalic, preconsonantal, and postconsonantal position -- the latter also morph initially -- as well as morph and word finally): _api_ /?api/ "fire" >>-> _berapi-api_ /bMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuer?api?api/ "fiery (of a speech)" (with prefix _ber-_ & reduplication) ? = glottal stop
= schwa = mid central unrounded vowel= = IPA topsy-turvy _e_. _ada_ /?ada/ "be, there be" >>-> _keadaan_ /k
?adaan/ [k
?ada?an] "situation, condition, circumstance" (prefix _ke-_ & suffix _-an_) Note: in the latter, the second glottal stop is phonetic, i.e. it is automatic, non-phonemic. _koran_ /kOran/ "newspaper" >< _Kuran_ /kur?an/ "the Qoran" O = back mid-low rounded vowel = IPA topsy-turvy _c_, in the former, the syllable boundary precedes the /r/, in the latter, it follows upon it." Most interesting from my point of view is Mahdi's comment: "The retention of morph-initial glottal stop after a prefix ending in /r/ is productive, but in some petrified inherited derivations the glottal is lost, resulting in the following case in a least pair: _apa_ /?apa/ "what" >>-> _berapa_ /b
r?apa/ "have what; what does ... have" >< _berapa_ /b
rapa/ "how much, how many" The former is productive, the latter petrified inherited), the syllable boundary divides the intervocalic consonant cluster, and precedes the intervocalic lone consonant." This pair looks to me a lot like the /bismi/<>/bi?amri/ Arabic pair. I suppose it would be dangerous to extrapolate too far from this datum. But is it possible that the glottal stop in /?apa/ was originally a default glottal stop (hence /berapa/ in the non-productive, hence older form) which has become phonemicized (hence /ber?apa/ in the productive modern form)? PROBLEM 3- When is length distinctive? A second problem, which falls on the border between phonetics and phonology, is how to determine whether length is distinctive or not. In Japanese, for example, length is generally assumed to be distinctive for both vowels and consonants, yet Joseph DeChicchis writes: "As for Mayan and Japanese dialects, the existence of a length contrast will depend on the particular phonological description. In the natural speech I have examined, I have failed to find cases where a "phonologically geminate" contrast is purely a length distinction. For example, in Chorti Mayan, geminate vowels are often signalled by laryngeal creak; in Japanese, geminate consonants have distinctive formant transition patterns." In German, on the other hand, length is assumed not to be distinctive, yet Carsten Peust writes: "[In German]There are two classes of vowels, one being long and one being short, but the former class also being different in vowel quantity (in general more closed). So you may either posit phonemic vowel quantity for German and treat the accompanying articulatory diffferences as phonologically irrelevant, or vice versa. A similar problem exists for English vowels." PROBLEM 4- Coda filling and compensatory lengthening not equal Finally, I had been assuming that coda filing was always compensatory lenghtening-- i.e. that it always involved the maintance of a distinctive weight contrast, and hence that it should only be found in langauges with distinctive length. Liz McKeown has, however, referred me to some interesting research on Chinese which clearly goes against this assumption: "Duanmu (1990) in his PhD thesis... argues that all Chinese syllables are the same length, with one slot in the onset and two in the rhyme. In a CVC (eg 'man') or CVV (eg 'hao') syllable, the vowel (or vowels) will always be short, while in CV syllables (eg 'ma') the vowel is long: this distinction is totally regular, and since it is not contrastive, has not been noted before. "Goh (1996 - 'The Segmental Phonology of Beijing Mandarin', PhD Thesis, SOAS, London) also claims that all Chinese syllables are the same length. He proposes a uniform template for the minimal phonological string, consisting of two onset-nucleus pairs, where if O2 is filled, N2 must be p-licensed, and if N2 is filled, O2 must be p-licensed. Where both O2 and N2 are empty, material will spread from N1 into N2 to create a long vowel. There are no branching constituents." RESULT The best examples, of what I was actually looking for then, would appear to be 1) Modern Hebrew (though not Biblical), whic according to Faber has the following properties: "Permitted syllables are CVC, CV, CCV, CCVC, CVCC. I can't think of any CCVCC syllables, but I wouldn't be surprised if they existed in loanwords. Glottal stop is phonemic (and may reflect historical /h/ and /9/ (voiced pharyngeal approximant) as well as /?/). Borrowed words that are vowel-initial in the source language would generally be nativized in Hebrew with an initial /?/: English is /?anglit/. Biblical Hebrew unambiguously had a contrast between single and geminate consonants, a contrast that is still reflected in normative orthography.And I suppose someone who wanted to write a fairly abstract phonology for Modern Hebrew might conceivably incorporate gemination in underlying representations. But there's absolutely no basis for this in the modern language" 2) Several Australian languages including Dyirbal. According to John Atkinson "Around half of the 200 or so Australian languages would satisfy both your properties. Single-consonant onsets are obligatory in perhaps 70% -- although in a few of these, "i-" and "u-" occur on occasion as allophones of "yi-" and "wu-". Borrowed words are normally adapted to fit -- thus "yinggilibi" for the introduced European bee. Hardly any Australian languages allow geminate or long consonants." 3) Tundra Nenets (according to Tapani Salminen), see above - --CONCLUSION and NEW QUERY------ Thanks again to all of the respondents and to this wonderful forum for making me aware of aspects of this issue which, arising from language data or research traditions with which I am unfamiliar, I would never have discovered on my own. In the short run I have decided to drop the phonemic typology line of argument from the paper I am working on. But I am still curious. For those of you who have followed me this far (and are not uspest with me for being so slow to summarize), my new query is: do you think my original typology is valid? That is: given the two parameters obligatory vs. non-obligatory onset filling and obl. vs. non-obl. coda filling, there are four ideal language types. Are clear examples of each of the four types actually found? The following are my examples for the first three (plus the List's examples for the fourth). Please tell me if you think they don't qualify and give me better examples if you can. (Although I realize I was wrong in assuming that coda filling processes were only found in languages with distinctive length, I continue to assume that length is necesarily preserved where it is distinctive. Thus presence of distinctive length is a good preliminary indication that obligatory coda filling is also found.) 1-onset not obligatorily filled/coda weight not obligatorily preserved English (but see summary), French 2.-onset obligatorily filled/coda weight obligatorily preserved Several classical Semitic languages-- Classical Arabic, most modern dialects of Arabic, Biblical Hebrew (though not modern see summary), Ge'ez; several Chadic langauges, for example Pero (Frajzyngier 1977, etc.), at least one Penutian langauge- Sierra Miwok (Noske 1985) 3.-onset not obligatorily filled/coda weight obligatorily preserved Japanese (but see summary), Classical Greek, Classical Latin, several Bantu languages, for example Luganda, as analyzed by Clements (1986). 4.onest obligatorily filled/coda wieght not obligatorily preserved Modern Hebrew, Tundra Nenets, Dyirbal and some other Australian languages