Editor for this issue: Ann Dizdar <dizdar
tam2000.tamu.edu>
Torsten Leuschner's description of early sound films is accurate, but I think the relevant comparandum is not "real life", but rather the legitimate theater (i.e., the exaggerated gestures required of stage actors so that they can communicate to the farthest members of the audience). A database with a much shorter timeline would be videos of operas (opera performances preserved on film are fairly rare and may be neglected or considred as the basepoint for the analysis). How rapidly did opera signers [singers] throw off the exaggerations needed for giant theaters, and take on the behavior of stage/TV actors? The widespread (in the US, anyway) use of supertitles has also helped reduce the need for exaggerated gesture to communicate the content of the drama. Perhaps there's a dissertaion in such comparisons ...Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
In reference to Sebastian Shaumyan, and to Robert Beard's response I would like to comment further. I really think that 'a' in 'devochka' (girl) does denote the singular, but only in context, which is of course the stem. After all, it is the 'i' that marks the plural (and both mark the nominative Case). Recall that adjectives must agree in 'phi' features that are marked for agreement. Without it marking the singular, it would be difficult to get agreement to work. If I may suggest it, Robert Beard seems to be mixing gender and sex. Gender refers to a classification system of noun that partially overlaps with natural sex. Gender is a phi feature, but sex is not. In Russian the word "vrach'" refers to a physician of either sex, but it is always masculine in gender: (1) Ona xorosh+ij vrach'. She good+masc/sing/nom doctor-[inherently masculine], null ending marks nom. singular. 'She's a good doctor.' 'Ona' marks sex, but 'xoroshij' marks gender. Pronouns typically mark sex, but when the noun is inanimate the pronoun agrees in gender. Complicated, but who says natural languages are not? The question of agency in words like 'cheat', 'cook', 'chef', 'guide', 'guard' etc. is that agency is lexically marked; that is, it is incorporated into the lexical stem. The word 'victim' incorporates patient. Just as 'man' incorporates 'maculine' but 'human' does not. Zero affixes are no solution here. 'Boy' would have to have two: one for masculine, and one for non-adult (and another for non-baby?). In most languages theta roles are not marked by phi-features. Theta-roles seem to be referential only, but they are incorporated into the lexical stem either as derivational affixes, or directly into the root-stem, if they are marked at all. This seems to go against the notion that morphemes are are referential only are inflectional (grammatical). I didn't expect to arrive at this conclusion when I began this discussion, but I have. Dick.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue