Editor for this issue: Ann Dizdar <dizdar
tam2000.tamu.edu>
This posting is meant both as a query and as a discussion piece. If our goal is to explain why the languages of the world have the typological distribution that they do (a goal shared by both 'structuralists' and 'functionalists'), we want to be reasonably sure that the typological generalizations we take as the explananda are real generalizations and not merely artifacts of sampling method or some built-in, but dubious, assumption. As Matthew Dryer has shown in several papers, to insure this is not so easy. He has shown that just taking a 'random sample' of the world's languages will not give us the right typological generalizations, due to the accidental fact of history that some language families are much bigger than others. So, a random sample of languages will give us about equal percentages of SVO and SOV, with most of the remainder VSO. But as Dryer points out, 71% of VSO languages are in one family (Austronesian) and 40% of SVO languages are in one family (Niger-Congo). Correcting for this fact (to the extent that it is possible to do so), SOV order is by far the predominant one. Dryer proposes a sampling method to correct for skewed sizes of language families, which is not my purpose to discuss here. Rather, I wish to point out that there is another potential way to test whether typological generalizations are 'real'. Suppose that 70% of languages have syntactic feature 'X' and 30% of languages have feature 'Y', where not having X implies Y, and not having Y implies X. We want to know if the 70%-30% split reflects something meaningful. Then, all other things being equal, IN SYNTACTIC CHANGE, we should find X arising somewhat more than twice as often as we find Y arising. Does anybody know / has anything been written on whether such predictions are borne out for attested (not reconstructed!) syntactic changes in the world's languages for whatever typological feature? My impression is that for basic word order change, the prediction fails miserably. That is, it is my impression (am I right?) that there are many more attested examples of SVO order arising than SOV order arising. This despite the conclusion that there is something 'real' (i.e. something to be explained) about a preference for SOV order. The problem, of course, is that there are very few languages whose development we can study for longer than a century, and they are almost all in just a few language families. So, if attested SOV -> SVO is more common than attested SVO -> SOV, that might merely be an accidental consequence of what we have documented for us in the historical record. Would anybody care to comment on this general problem in a Linguist List posting? Fritz Newmeyer fjnMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueu.washington.edu
Dear linguists, We, some Hebraishts-cum-Yiddishists in the cyberspace, are discussing about and searching for the best way to send and receive e-mail in Yiddish using Hebrew characters (including all diacritical marks specific to Yiddish). For the time being we are exchanging our messages in Romanized Yiddish. We are interested to know how other less-known languages which use non-Roman characters are struggling with the problem of sending and receiving e-mail in their original characters. I should be grateful if you would inform us of the state of the art in your language(s). I will report about the answers here after a while. Thank you for your cooperation. Tsuguya Sasaki Doctoral Student, The Hebrew University of Jerusalem Research Fellow, Japan Society for the Promotion of Science (Kyoto = University) tsuguyaMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuegol.com
Members, I am trying to find the etymology of the phrase "to streak", meaning to run naked. A prof here at Macalester College claims that the phrase originated here, but I can't find any proof to back that up - or to disprove it. The dictionaries I have checked don't even list this as a meaning of "streak" so I guess it's slang, though certainly in common usage -- especially here at Mac where it's a popular pasttime. :) Any help or leads would be very much appreciated. Thank you. Heather Cannon hcannonMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuemacalstr.edu