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Quoth Dick Hudson <dickMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuelinguistics.ucl.ac.uk>: > Mike Maxwell says that prescriptivism is about `ought to be' while > descriptivism is about `is', but I don't think it's that simple; and > that's why this issue is so hard to sort out. Descriptivism is also > about `ought to be' in that it's about rules/norms, But rules needn't be about `ought to be'. They aren't in natural science. You can't paraphrase `2+2=4' or `E=m*c2' as `2+2 ought to be 4' or `_E_ ought to be equal to _m*c2_'. > and the trouble with prescriptivism is precisely that it pretends to > be about `is', because it claims that the `correct' rule for > infinitives (say) is that they mustn't be split. Both approaches > recognise that performance need not follow the rules - that > infinitives are split every day. It seems to me that within a descriptive approach performance can't fail to follow the rules, because what performance does not follow is by definition not a rule. And afaik the `rule' about not saying _to boldly go_ was never anything but a prescription. What descriptivism has to recognise is that any rule that actually exists can change on very short notice, and that there is always a danger of today's description being made into a prescription tomorrow. > The difference is over the rules. Descriptivists *discover* them (by > looking at normal behaviour - infinitive-splitting is so normal that > it must be ok.) I would suggest that descriptivism ends, and prescriptivism begins, with the very use of the term `infinitive-splitting'. Why call _to go_ an infinitive? Its etymological counterparts in the other Germanic languages (such as German _zu gehen_) are never called that. - `Meum est propositum in taberna mori; Vinum sit appositum sitienti ori: Ut dicant cum venerint angelorum chori "Deus sit propitius isti potatori".' (Archpoet of Cologne, `The Confession of Golias') Ivan A Derzhanski <iad
banmatpc.math.acad.bg> H: cplx Iztok bl 91, 1113 Sofia, Bulgaria <http://www.math.acad.bg/~iad/> W: Dept for Math Lx, Inst for Maths & CompSci, Bulg Acad of Sciences
Somehow the discussion of prescriptivism seems to have concentrated on issues that, I believe, lie outside of linguistics -- issues of "ought to be" vs. "is." At the same time, there has been little discussion of the realities of prescriptivism. Perhaps considering the range of those realities might clarify the issues a little bit. I believe that prescriptivism covers a lot of territory; let me mention three points on the continuum: (1) Elementary and secondary language studies: reading, writing, and (with luck) some sort of speech arts. Every child that goes through school is subjected to 8 to 20+ years of prescriptivism. Learning to spell is prescriptivism, learning the (standard) definitions of words is prescriptivism, and learning to write a coherent sentence is prescriptivism. (2) The same process, applied to children with non-standard dialects, is likewise prescriptivism. Consider children whose dialects will count against them when they seek employment. One can argue that coercing these children to speak & write the standard dialect will lead to a loss of self-esteem, but at the same time it may provide them with the tools to succeed economically. (3) The same process applied to children who speak a different language, is still prescriptivism. While this can also range over a broad terrain, the cases that come to my mind are (a) the proscription of the Welsh language in southern Welsh schools in the last century, (b) the forced removal of Native American children to English-only schools in the United States well into this century, and (c) the similar treatment of Sami children in Norway in early part of this century. In the case of Native American children, the benefits of learning English rarely translated into economic success. Undoubtedly there have been individual success stories, but I suspect that the goal of many of these programs has been rarely the betterment of the individual and too often the cultural extirpation of an inconvenient minority. I don't think that anybody would quibble with the goals of the first example. And I suspect that almost everyone would condemn the third example, at least in the more heavy-handed instances. I think that a lot of people would quibble with at least some of the goals of the second example, but clearly there is a cost/benefit tradeoff involved. Some children will be helped, but with some sort of cost. There are techniques that mitigate the negative effects of this sort of prescriptivism. (And, I suspect, these techniques enhance the positive effects at the same time.) It seems to me that the ethical questions involved in the second and third examples have nothing to do with linguistics. These are questions better addressed by other disciplines -- sociology, for instance. This does not exempt linguists from participating in the discussion of the ethical issues. The fact that linguists can become instruments in prescriptivist programs implies that linguists must concern themselves with these issues. Engineers must make decisions as to whether to (a) participate in weapons programs, (b) participate in communications programs when the products of those programs will be used by the military (an option determined by many friends of mine to be a "lesser evil"), (c) participate in programs that have no obvious immediate connection to the military, or (d) work only for Disney. (Personally, I'm glad my dad worked on military projects in World War II.) The issues involved in these decisions have nothing to do with engineering per se. And engineers are ill-trained to make cogent arguments about the gradations, though they are better equipped than most to foresee the technical implications of their work. I don't think that the situation for linguists in prescriptivist programs is much different. Too many of the issues that matter in these programs are sociological issues, they are not linguistic issues. And too many of the factors that determine weather a program is a net benefit or detriment are particular to a situation. I don't believe that one can formulate a grand philosophical policy that settles the issue. Does it really do any good for us to determine what "ought to" really means to us as linguists? Will this really answer any questions about prescriptivism? I would like to hear from some of the people involved in the Advocates for Indigenous California Language Survival, or any other such groups. Actually, I'd also like to hear from people who advocate for such positions as "English only," though I'd prefer someone more thoughtful than Ron Unz (latest Republican millionaire to hit the California political scene, trying to catch the English-only wave). What are the real issues on the front lines?Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Alexis Manaster-Ramer writes (LINGUIST List 8-1780): "(4) It might be that certain aspects of prescriptivism do have some real basis. I have over the years collected some examples that seem to suggest this. For example, it is a well-known fact that in many European languages constructions like 'Having read the Joy of Cooking, it was easy for him to make a perfect souffle' are (a) commonly used and (b) condemend as incorrect by the prescriptivsists. Now, since the grammarians and mavens of European languages are all connected, this is not necessarily remarkable. However, whenwe find that such constructions were common in Sanskrit but are not allowed by Panini's grammar (Peter Hook wrote a paper on this some years ago), we might well wonder if there is not something beyond mere arbitrary convention in what the prescriptive grammarians teach (at least some times)." This relates to something that I have been thinking about for some time. Back in 1969, Paul Postal introduced the notion of "Anaphoric Island" which, reformulated in theory-neutral terms, boils down to a constraint against examples such as "*John is an orphan and Peter's ones are dead too", in which an anaphoric device refers to an inferred entity rather than one introduced by an explicit antecedent. Postal argued that such sentences are just ungrammatical, but it seems to be an empirical fact that people do sometimes say similar things, which is of course might be taken as simply implying Postal was wrong. However, the classical Swedish prescriptivist grammar, Wellander 1939, contains a section on precisely this type of sentence, ruling it out as "bad Swedish". That Wellander finds it necessary to include this section in his book, in my opinion, shows two things: first, that the constraint is not just a figment of Postal's imagination, second, that people do tend to violate it. The interesting question remains: what is its status? Oesten Dahl oestenMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueling.su.se References Postal, Paul M. 1969a. Anaphoric Islands. In Binnick, R.I., Davison, A., Green, G.M., and Morgan, J.L., (eds.), Papers from 5th Regional Meeting of the CLS, Univ. of Chicago, Dept. of Linguistics, Chicago 1969. Wellander, Erik 1939. Riktig svenska. Stockholm: Norstedts.