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In LINGUIST 8.1807, David Harris <dharrisMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuelas-inc.com> wrote: If you taught writing based on a corpus of contemporary business letters or one of speech that occurs in meetings held by law firms or technology firms, this wouldn't necessarily be prescriptionist... My point is that you can teach a child the necessary language skills to get along in a society (theoretically anyway) without teaching them how they "ought to" speak or write but rather simply teaching them how people in contemporary society DO interact. I'm not sure if David Harris is actually saying this would be a good idea, or if the "theoretically" means this is all hypothetical. In any case, I doubt whether you could persuade the average person on the street, much less a teacher, that the average business letter, manual, IRS instruction sheet, etc. is a good example of writing as it should be. I've certainly seen some gibberish! (I shudder when I read some of my own writing from times past.) As for the language of law firms, I think we've all seen enough legalese that I don't have to comment on it here. Linguists have even been paid to develop better ways of writing legal documents, and teach those ways to lawyers. Now there's a prescriptivism that most of us can applaud! (Well, David did say "speech in meetings held by law firms", not written legal documents. I consider myself fortunate never to have attended such meetings, so I suppose I shouldn't comment. Maybe lawyers talk better than they write. Still, I wonder.) As several people have commented in this discussion, there's a large gray area between prescriptivism as hair splitting, and prescriptivism as good style (avoidance of ambiguity, for instance). The anti-prescriptivist messages in this thread have almost uniformly talked about the former. C'mon, there's more to prescriptivism than split hairs (excuse me, split infinitives) and sentence-final prepositions. Mike Maxwell
Dick Hudson asks whether I really meant to oppose first-language teaching in the schools. Actually, what I meant was a teeny bit more complicated: namely, that if one opposes prescriptivism, one must oppose this variety of it. I also did quite seriously mean 'mistreatment' when I wrote that, since the way prescriptive language rules are usually taught certainly seems that way to me. However, I have consistently argued (and I think only Benji Wald has been listening) that consistent opposition to prescriptivism (which I have always fervently felt to be morally the right position) seems to lead to certain intellectual difficulties, namely, (1) it seems to lead to the idea that one should never tell anyone or even oneself that one behavior is correct and another incorrect, yet that is itself morally difficult to swallow, leads to a paradox (since then we have no right to condemn prescriptivists!), and seems to run head-on into the problem that a species which is almost wholly dependent on learning rather than instinct (unless Chomsky is right after all) would seem to depend for its survival on learing precisely what is and what is not correct, and (2) there is some evidence (such as that cited by me first and then by O"sten Dahl and then by me again) that prescriptive rules at least sometimes (and I actually think quite often) have some basis beyond the prescribers' whim. So I am profoundly troubled, and would certainly like to get any help with resolving these dilemmas. BUT--as far as what linguistics has learned to date (excluding the examples O"sten and I cited and others such), it would seem to me that consistent opposition to prescriptivism has been the only right position for linguists to take. Of course, as I have argued, all too few linguists have actually done so in practice, but that is another matter entirely. It is only NOW that I believe that some of the problems with anti-prescriptivism are emerging. In fact, I do not recall reading anyone before me who called attention to these. So, while I see some serious problems with anti-prescriptivism, I do not see them as having to do with what Dick and others seem to take as the irrationality of opposing the prescriptive teaching of first language in the schools. Dick is right in one way: my views may be colored by my own experience here: I learned to read my native Polish before going to school, though I refused to learn to write it because my brothers, who were trying to teach me, were following the method they had themselves suffered from earlier, namely, learning to make various strokes before learning to form letters out of these strokes (bet many of you know this is how Chinese characters are learned, but not that the same was (is?) the practice in some countries otherwise blessed/cursed with alphabetic writing). In addition, the form of Polish I learned at home was one which my family and I think (but do not know for sure) our friends regarded as (I can recall my brother saying this once) "more correct" on some points than what was officially recognized as standard. I dont know if it would help matters if I went into details. And then I quickly realized that various rules I was taught at school were just plain stupid, e.g., the rule that a one-letter word should never end a line, and the explanations davanced in defense of some of the absurdities of standrd spelling were tehemselves absurd. I do not know whether this was taught throughout Poland in the 60's or whether it is still taught or how old the idea is but I was taught that the reason why the phoneme /u/ has two different spellings, namely, 'u' and 'o' with an acute, was that "fraternal" languages, Russian (and I think though am not sure Czech) have different sounds corresponding to the one and the other. (Actually, I would love to hear from anybody who has answers to some of these mysteries my brief early life in POland has left me with.) And my subsequent experiences learning English, Dutch, French, Russian, and Hebrew (the first bunch of non-POlish languages I learned) brought experiences which kept confirming me in my view that something was seriously wrong with the (I did not then know the term) prescriptivist way languages are taught in some parts of the world. This may well be the main reason why I chose linguistics over math or history as my career (a big mistake as I later discovered when it turned out that I could make a living teaching and researching just about anything so long as it was not linguistics), simply because the first linguists I met and took courses from (at Chicago) seemed to provide a coheretn account both of what was wrong with the prescriptive approach and of what the RIGHT approach to language was (the descriptive one). Hebrew and French, where the distance between what people really say and what the prescirptivists teach (even to second-language learners) were probably crucial for me. It was a shock to discover that I could speak French but could not understand half of what people were saying (or more), for example. And as for Hebrew, the supposed standard language just seemed like a bad joke even at the age of 11 or 12 when I first happened to spend some time in Israel. I might add that more recently my attempts to learn certain other languages have confirmed the impression that much 2nd language teaching is hopelessly impractical precisely because it is enormously prescriptive. One of the few exceptiosn to this statement that I have personally enocuntered is the teaching of Sinhalese, which I discovered to be spoken both by upper-class dandies, taxi drivers, and shopkeepers very much the same language that the books by Jim Gair and others described (with literary Sinhalese being an eniterly differnt language, which they describe in other books). But, to name a fairly recent experience, I have not been able to find any source on Hindi which described anything like th language I heard spoken in India, and I still find that trying to speak Hindi is much like what Whorf desceibed as his experience of learning Hopi: almost every sentence that comes out produces amusement or misunderstanding. And so on and so forth. So, yes, my views are (suriprise!?) colored by my personal experiences, but that does not make them necessarily wrong. What may turn out to make them wrong is one or the other of points (1) and (2) or something else along those lines. AMR PS. I have finally remembered the name I associate with the idea that prescriptivism could be simply replaed with description of the speech of the "educated" speakers, namely, Man'czak. I wonder if there might be earlier authors who held the same view--which seems to me to be seductive but completely unsatisfactory.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
David Harris said: Someone made the comment the other day that linguists who are involved in dictionary projects are by definition prescriptivists because they are contributing toward the production of a text which is meant to serve as a linguistic "authority." Only not all dictionaries do that. A dictionary is first and foremost a source of information. Point granted. We need to make a distinction between learners' dictionaries and reference dictionaries and 'academic' dictionaries. The first two are prescriptive in nature. The Oxford or Websters or Macquarie have all had to go through a process of selection of items for inclusion, and the form in which it should take. Even if alternatives are allowed, the first alternative is deemed the favoured one. However descriptivist the intentions are, I think it is very difficult escaping from the prescriptivist use to which readers put dictionaries. Peter TanMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue