Editor for this issue: T. Daniel Seely <seely
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Hi - the title of this query is probably more interesting than the substance of it. A student of mine wants to look at Dickens' _Oliver Twist_ and Joyce's _Ulysses_ in the context of whatever information she can find about 19th-century London street speech (for Dickens) and early 20th- century Dublin street speech (for Joyce). I'd be grateful, on her behalf, for any citations people could send me; they should be sent directly to me ( lrosenwaldMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuewellesley.edu ), since she's not on e-mail. Thanks very much, Larry Rosenwald/ Wellesley College
Does anybody know whether there are available LSA stylesheet bibliography styles for use in LaTex? Yours, Lumme Erilt Lumme Erilt Sytiste tee 43-203, EE0034 Tallinn, Estonia Tel. 372-2-581257Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Dear Linguists, I am working on aspects of adjectival inflection through Germanic and Romance languages, and have some specific questions about English adjectives. Sorry if it sounds trivial to some of you. It is well known that modern English lacks adjectival inflection, at least for features of gender and number (English adjectives have overt superlative and comparative inflection, though). According to some sources, however, it looks like English actually LOST these adjectival gender and number features at some stage of its evolution, contrary to other Germanic languages like Dutch and German (the latter is refered to have 'rich' adjectival inflection). Here is what I am interested in: 1.What kind of morphemes did old English use for gender and number features within old adjectival inflection? Particularly, did morpheme 's' apply to adjective number, as it did (and does) for nouns? Also, did old English adjectives have some gender morpheme? 2.How do determiners (and quantifiers) behave with respect to the same questions? Did old English determiners bear some kind of gender or number inflection, contrary to modern determiners? 3.Exactly WHY did English adjectives lost their gender and number inflection (but not their superlative/comparative inflection)? Did this loss have some counterpart (like some kind of complementary distribution with other lexical/functional heads)? 4.What exact references could help me explain WHY and HOW English adjectives were affected by the loss of their inflection at some stage of English evolution, proving that modern English (null) adjectival inflection is the result of this loss? Also, are there any related Internet resources available? Some examples of sentences in old English with full inflected adjectives would be welcome too :-) Best, Fernando fmartMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuemail.ua.pt http://sweet.ua.pt/~fmart