Editor for this issue: Ljuba Veselinova <ljuba
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Dear linguists, a friend of maine is working on problems with translation of black English into Serbian. She would be very grateful if she could get all or most of the articles on Ebonics. Greeting to all, OZAMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueunsff.ns.ac.yu
It is *usually* the case that verbs will agree with subjects before objects and that objects will be case marked before verbs, expressed informally via the implications in (i) and (ii): (i) object agreement ---> subject agreement (ii) overt nominative case marking ---> overt objective case marking Does anyone know of studies that look at implication (ii) in languages without any verb agreement morphology, i.e. without subject OR object agreement? That is, does (ii) hold if the language lacks agreement? Also, in languages which have been claimed to violate (i), is (ii) also violated? Please reply to me directly if you have any information on these questions and I will post a summary of responses. Thanks, - DLE ****************************** ****************************** Dan Everett Department of Linguistics University of Pittsburgh 2816 CL Pittsburgh, PA 15260 Phone: 412-624-8101; Fax: 412-624-6130 http://www.linguistics.pitt.edu/~deverMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue